Electrical Engineering - Ohm's Law - Discussion

Discussion Forum : Ohm's Law - General Questions (Q.No. 5)
5.
Approximately how many milliamperes of current flow through a circuit with a 40 V source and 6.8 k of resistance?
27.2 mA
59 mA
5.9 mA
590 mA
Answer: Option
Explanation:
No answer description is available. Let's discuss.
Discussion:
29 comments Page 2 of 3.

Basavaraj olekar said:   9 years ago
Because ohms law I = v/r, 40/6.8.

Mikemike said:   9 years ago
I = V/R = 40V/6.8k ohms = 5.88, or 5.9.

Olisemeke Job Vitalis said:   9 years ago
I = v/R

=> 40/6800
=> 0.00588235 x 1000
=> 5.88

I = 5.9

Sanjay said:   1 decade ago
5.88 = 5.9. It is correct.

KOUSHAL KUMAR BAIRWA said:   1 decade ago
Given that:

R = 6.8Kilo ohms = 6.8*1000 = 6800.
And V=40 volt.

And the ohms low is said (v) = IR.
THAN I=V/R ..........1.

PUTS THE VALUE OF R AND V IN EQUATION 1.

I = 40/6800
= 5.88*0.001 : 0.001 = MILL(m).
= 5.88mA.

PROJIT said:   1 decade ago
I=V/R
=40/6.8
=5.88

Jefrey said:   1 decade ago
Given:

I= V/R.
I=?
V= 40V.
R= 6.8 kilo ohms.

Solution:

By using ohms law.
I= V/R.
I= 40/6.8.
I= 5.88mA or 5.9mA.

S.HARI said:   1 decade ago
I = V/R.
I = 40/6800.
= 5.88mA.

Gabriel said:   1 decade ago
We know V=IR.

I = V/R in this case,

R = 6.8*10^3.

Instead of wasting precious time.

I = 40/6.8= 5.88.

Appx = 5.9 and its in the option so.

Pramod shinva said:   1 decade ago
Before convert the kohm TO ohms. Due to over formula is suitable for ohms.

I = V/R. (1 KOhm = 1000 Ohm. So 6.8kohm = 6800 ohms).

I = 40/6800.

= 0.00588 Amp (1 Amps = 1000MA).

= 0.00588*1000.

= 5.8.

= So answer is near 5.9mA. Thats way answer is 5.9mA.


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