Data Interpretation - Table Charts - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Table Charts - Table Chart 2 (Q.No. 4)
Directions to Solve
Study the following table and answer the questions.
Number of Candidates Appeared and Qualified in a Competitive Examination from Different States Over the Years.
State | Year | |||||||||
1997 | 1998 | 1999 | 2000 | 2001 | ||||||
App. | Qual. | App. | Qual. | App. | Qual. | App. | Qual. | App. | Qual. | |
M | 5200 | 720 | 8500 | 980 | 7400 | 850 | 6800 | 775 | 9500 | 1125 |
N | 7500 | 840 | 9200 | 1050 | 8450 | 920 | 9200 | 980 | 8800 | 1020 |
P | 6400 | 780 | 8800 | 1020 | 7800 | 890 | 8750 | 1010 | 9750 | 1250 |
Q | 8100 | 950 | 9500 | 1240 | 8700 | 980 | 9700 | 1200 | 8950 | 995 |
R | 7800 | 870 | 7600 | 940 | 9800 | 1350 | 7600 | 945 | 7990 | 885 |
4.
What is the percentage of candidates qualified from State N for all the years together, over the candidates appeared from State N during all the years together?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
Required percentage |
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= 11.15% |
Discussion:
10 comments Page 1 of 1.
Bhoopathi.Ch said:
1 decade ago
Assume 10% of 43150 i.e., 4315.
4810 - 4315 = 495.
1% of 43150 is 431.50.
495-431.50 = 63.50.
63.50 is 0.15% of 43150.
Then add all 10%+1%+0.15% = 11.15%.
Try to consider the denominator parts as 1% , 10% to solve these kind of problems.
4810 - 4315 = 495.
1% of 43150 is 431.50.
495-431.50 = 63.50.
63.50 is 0.15% of 43150.
Then add all 10%+1%+0.15% = 11.15%.
Try to consider the denominator parts as 1% , 10% to solve these kind of problems.
ChowdaReddy said:
1 decade ago
@Kapil, As you said exact value is 11.147 only but we have nearest value 11.15 in the options. You have to consider the most nearest value when there is no exact value.
Umakant said:
1 decade ago
@Swathi.
Your calculation is wrong, it goes beyond 13% so, how we can get answer between 11.15 and 11.47%.
Please correct me if I m wrong. Thanks.
Your calculation is wrong, it goes beyond 13% so, how we can get answer between 11.15 and 11.47%.
Please correct me if I m wrong. Thanks.
(2)
Swathi said:
1 decade ago
4810---->4500.
43150---->40000.
4500/40000*100 = 11.25%.
So nearest value off our answer in options was 11.15%.
So the answer is D.
43150---->40000.
4500/40000*100 = 11.25%.
So nearest value off our answer in options was 11.15%.
So the answer is D.
(1)
Rakesh said:
1 decade ago
I think we can do the below:
4810/4315 = .48/.432(apprx) = .12/.108 = .03/.27 = .01/.09 = 1/9 = 100/9% = 11.111...%
4810/4315 = .48/.432(apprx) = .12/.108 = .03/.27 = .01/.09 = 1/9 = 100/9% = 11.111...%
(1)
Kapil Suryawanshi said:
1 decade ago
4810/43150*100 = 11.147 this is correct answer.
Why should you given the answer - 11.15?
Please reply me.
Why should you given the answer - 11.15?
Please reply me.
Reet said:
1 decade ago
I can do the first step but cannot understand how you calculate the second step.. Please help..
Bhupathi mp said:
9 years ago
Hi, I can't understand this problem. Could anyone help me?
(1)
Ashima said:
1 decade ago
Within a short span of time how to do these calculations?
Srikanth reddy said:
1 decade ago
Any short cut please.
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