Aptitude - True Discount - Discussion

Discussion Forum : True Discount - General Questions (Q.No. 8)
8.
A man buys a watch for Rs. 1950 in cash and sells it for Rs. 2200 at a credit of 1 year. If the rate of interest is 10% per annum, the man:
gains Rs. 55
gains Rs. 50
loses Rs. 30
gains Rs. 30
Answer: Option
Explanation:

S.P. = P.W. of Rs. 2200 due 1 year hence
= Rs. 2200 x 100
100 + (10 x 1)
= Rs. 2000.

Gain = Rs. (2000 - 1950) = Rs. 50.

Discussion:
87 comments Page 6 of 9.

Lokendra Rajak said:   1 decade ago
Suppose Present Worth of Rs. 2200 is A.

2200 = (A x 110)/100.

A = (2200 x 100)/110.

A = 2000.

Gain = 2000-1950 = 50.

Sethupathi said:   1 decade ago
2200 is the credit for after 1 year. So (2200/110)*100 = 2000.

So the amount might be 2000. So his gain must be 50.

Yogesh meena said:   9 years ago
2200 =interest + actual selling prize.
S.p. = x
2200 = x10/100 + x,
x = 2000.

So, that 2000-1950 = 50.
(2)

Arun Kumar said:   1 decade ago
I also agree with sai.

I too followed the same logic.

If it is wrong could some one xplain tat?.

Logician said:   1 decade ago
Think from the seller's perspective and live at present.

Then you will get Rs.50 as the answer.

Maninder said:   1 decade ago
If someone has sell the thing on credit then I should get interest. So profit should increase.

Raman Malik said:   1 decade ago
Correct answer should be 55 not the 50. As gain would be on the amount spent not on the 2200.

Raju said:   1 decade ago
I think sai is correct because how to know whether it is think logically or do formula based.

Sayed Hamid said:   1 decade ago
2200 is mark price and interest is 10% then
if selling price is x
then x*1.1=2200
so x=2000

Saurabh jain said:   1 decade ago
Answer is wrong because,

(1950*1*10)/100 = 195.
1950+195 = 2145.
2200-2145 = 55 Rs. Gain.


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