Aptitude - True Discount - Discussion
Discussion Forum : True Discount - General Questions (Q.No. 8)
8.
A man buys a watch for Rs. 1950 in cash and sells it for Rs. 2200 at a credit of 1 year. If the rate of interest is 10% per annum, the man:
Answer: Option
Explanation:
| S.P. | = P.W. of Rs. 2200 due 1 year hence | |||||
|
||||||
| = Rs. 2000. |
Gain = Rs. (2000 - 1950) = Rs. 50.
Discussion:
87 comments Page 7 of 9.
Parvez said:
1 decade ago
Okay So the when looking from the seller's perspective the answer is correct. Thanks all.
Himani said:
1 decade ago
Should we calcuate the value of 1950 at 10% per annum?
Kindly clear my doubt.
Kindly clear my doubt.
Aadesh Kumar said:
4 years ago
I am also getting 55 as the correct answer.
Anyone, please clarify this.
Anyone, please clarify this.
(16)
Pulkit said:
1 decade ago
Totally agreed with mr sai. I have also used the same trick!
Aniket said:
9 years ago
Please explain the answer more clearly. I couldn't get it.
Vidya said:
2 decades ago
What is P.W. here? I can't understand that formula used.
Sayed hamid husain said:
1 decade ago
2200 is M.P.
n if x is S.P.
then x*1.1=2200
x=2000
n if x is S.P.
then x*1.1=2200
x=2000
Pawan said:
1 decade ago
I am also agree with sai. I also used same trick.
Aditya said:
1 decade ago
Ya Sai is right. I have also use the same trick !
Krishna said:
1 decade ago
I am also agree with sai I also used same trick.
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