Aptitude - True Discount - Discussion

Discussion Forum : True Discount - General Questions (Q.No. 8)
8.
A man buys a watch for Rs. 1950 in cash and sells it for Rs. 2200 at a credit of 1 year. If the rate of interest is 10% per annum, the man:
gains Rs. 55
gains Rs. 50
loses Rs. 30
gains Rs. 30
Answer: Option
Explanation:

S.P. = P.W. of Rs. 2200 due 1 year hence
= Rs. 2200 x 100
100 + (10 x 1)
= Rs. 2000.

Gain = Rs. (2000 - 1950) = Rs. 50.

Discussion:
87 comments Page 1 of 9.

Sumedh inamdar said:   5 years ago
The 2200 at the credit of 1 year means after one year, he gets 2200 so we have to find present value at which he sells watch and then subtract it from 1950.

So 2200= p + S.I.
S.I= 2200-p.

2200-p = (p*10*1)/100.
p=2000.
Therefore profit =2000-1950 = 50rs.
(43)

Abhipsa said:   2 years ago
CP(cost price) = 1950.
SP(selling price) = x.
After 1 year total amount = 2200/- And rate(r) = 10%.
Simpe interest = (P*R*T)/100.
2200 = [(x*r*t)/100] + x.

2200 = x[(10*1)/100 + 1].
x = (2200*100)/110.
x = 2000.

Gain = sp - cp.
Gain = 2000 - 1950.
Gain = 50.
(20)

Aadesh Kumar said:   4 years ago
I am also getting 55 as the correct answer.

Anyone, please clarify this.
(16)

Suhail Abdul Rehman Chougule said:   8 years ago
The answer given here 50 is wrong it should be 55, Because Seller in Investing 1950 as to incur the cost at 10%(i.e. 195) and the buyer is paying 2200 after a year.

So, the sellers cost is 1950+195 =2145 and hence his gain in the transactions is 2200-2145 =55.
(7)

CHANDRA MOHAN NAHAR said:   6 years ago
cp(cost price) = 1950/-
sp(selling price) = x/-
After 1 year total amount = 2200/- And rate(r) = 10%.
Simpe interest = (P*R*T)/100.
2200 = [(x*r*t)/100] + x.

2200 = x[(10*1)/100 + 1].

x = (2200*100)/110.
x = 2000/-

Gain = sp - cp.
Gain = 2000 - 1950.
Gain = 5.
(6)

Dheeraj said:   1 year ago
Here c.p = 1950.
If the rate of interest is 10% per annum.
10% of c.p= 195.
total c.p = 2145.
s.p = 2200.
profit = s.p - c.p
2200 - 2145 = 55.
So, profit = 55.
(5)

Sivaranjani S said:   5 months ago
Amount = 2200, at interest 10%, for a credit period of 1 year,
Amount = (p*n*r)/100 + p,
2200 = (p * 1 * 10)/100) + p,
1.1 p = 2200.
p = 2000 (selling price),
profit = 1950 - 2000,
profit = 50.
(3)

Rahul said:   8 years ago
According to me, 55 is the correct answer.
(3)

Yogesh meena said:   9 years ago
2200 =interest + actual selling prize.
S.p. = x
2200 = x10/100 + x,
x = 2000.

So, that 2000-1950 = 50.
(2)

Austim said:   8 years ago
Why 55 is wrong?

Because according to the people who are that's not true. We cannot predict the original price of the watch in future. Maybe it can be a loss!. But definitely, we can comment on present profit. So giving a profit after 1 year implicitly invalid whether it's 50, 55 or 30 until and unless there is not mention of a rate with which original price would have increased.
(1)


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