Aptitude - True Discount - Discussion
Discussion Forum : True Discount - General Questions (Q.No. 8)
8.
A man buys a watch for Rs. 1950 in cash and sells it for Rs. 2200 at a credit of 1 year. If the rate of interest is 10% per annum, the man:
Answer: Option
Explanation:
| S.P. | = P.W. of Rs. 2200 due 1 year hence | |||||
|
||||||
| = Rs. 2000. |
Gain = Rs. (2000 - 1950) = Rs. 50.
Discussion:
87 comments Page 5 of 9.
Faraz said:
1 decade ago
Present value= (future value x 100) which is divide by 1 + interest rate (10)
but here you change formula
future value x 100 divided by 100 + (interest rate x 1)
but here you change formula
future value x 100 divided by 100 + (interest rate x 1)
Shawisk said:
1 decade ago
@all.
After reading the all above comments.
Dear all interest paid by customer not by man who sale.
So the interest is 200 for 2000.
And 2000-1950=50.
Gain 50.
After reading the all above comments.
Dear all interest paid by customer not by man who sale.
So the interest is 200 for 2000.
And 2000-1950=50.
Gain 50.
Dheeraj said:
1 year ago
Here c.p = 1950.
If the rate of interest is 10% per annum.
10% of c.p= 195.
total c.p = 2145.
s.p = 2200.
profit = s.p - c.p
2200 - 2145 = 55.
So, profit = 55.
If the rate of interest is 10% per annum.
10% of c.p= 195.
total c.p = 2145.
s.p = 2200.
profit = s.p - c.p
2200 - 2145 = 55.
So, profit = 55.
(5)
Khadyoth said:
10 years ago
I = PTR/100.
= 1950*1*10/100 = 195.
Therefore A = P+I.
= 1950+195 = 2145.
GAIN = 2200-2145 = 55.
So, the man gained Rs. 55.
And correct answer is "A".
= 1950*1*10/100 = 195.
Therefore A = P+I.
= 1950+195 = 2145.
GAIN = 2200-2145 = 55.
So, the man gained Rs. 55.
And correct answer is "A".
Shubham Singh said:
9 years ago
If P = 100 on 10% rate of interest he have to pay I = 110.
So, 100 -> 110.
x -> 2200.
By Solving x = 2000.
So, profit is 2000 - 1950 = 50.
So, 100 -> 110.
x -> 2200.
By Solving x = 2000.
So, profit is 2000 - 1950 = 50.
Sana said:
1 decade ago
I think 10% should be calculated on present worth.
10% 0f 2000=200.
1950+200=2150.
2200-2150=50.
Because the rate mentioned is for present worth.
10% 0f 2000=200.
1950+200=2150.
2200-2150=50.
Because the rate mentioned is for present worth.
Dpk said:
1 decade ago
p+(p*10/100) = 2200.
p(1+(1*10)/100) = 2200.
p((100+1*10)/100) = 2200.
p = (2200*100)/(100+1*10) = 2000.
=>gain = 2000-1950 = 50.
p(1+(1*10)/100) = 2200.
p((100+1*10)/100) = 2200.
p = (2200*100)/(100+1*10) = 2000.
=>gain = 2000-1950 = 50.
NAYEEM said:
9 years ago
A = P + I.
2200 = P + P * 1 * 10/100.
2200 = P{100 + (1 * 10)}/100.
P = 2200 * 100/{100 + (1 * 10)}
P = 2000.
GAIN = 2000 - 1950 = 50.
2200 = P + P * 1 * 10/100.
2200 = P{100 + (1 * 10)}/100.
P = 2200 * 100/{100 + (1 * 10)}
P = 2000.
GAIN = 2000 - 1950 = 50.
Akshat said:
1 decade ago
Yup! correct answer is Rs 55 as the amount of money for which he is losing interest income is Rs 1950 only and not Rs 2200.
Mildred said:
1 decade ago
I think I agree with @Sai, we were asked to find the present value of the gain or loss in that case it would have been 50.
Post your comments here:
Quick links
Quantitative Aptitude
Verbal (English)
Reasoning
Programming
Interview
Placement Papers