Aptitude - True Discount - Discussion
Discussion Forum : True Discount - General Questions (Q.No. 8)
8.
A man buys a watch for Rs. 1950 in cash and sells it for Rs. 2200 at a credit of 1 year. If the rate of interest is 10% per annum, the man:
Answer: Option
Explanation:
| S.P. | = P.W. of Rs. 2200 due 1 year hence | |||||
|
||||||
| = Rs. 2000. |
Gain = Rs. (2000 - 1950) = Rs. 50.
Discussion:
87 comments Page 4 of 9.
Rohan Mishra said:
1 decade ago
Correct Answer Is Rs 55. Simple Logic Says Total Cost = Rs 1950 Rate Of Interest = 10 %, Time = 1 Yrs. If This Money Is Invested It Will Yield = Rs. 1950 + 195 = Rs 2145. Hence Profit Will Be Rs 2200 - 2145 = Profit Rs 55.
Anushk said:
1 decade ago
I agree with karimkhan. The seller gets 2200 at the end of the year. If the seller had not bought the watch, he would have an additional rs 195 at the end of the year. Logically he has only made a profit of rs 55.
MURUGESAN said:
9 years ago
Friends,
CP RS -1950.
After 1 year credit the amount in bank 2200,
So the sale present, so if he increase sale Rs 50 + 1950 = 2000 After 1 year the credit amount is 200.
2000, after 1-year interest is 20.
CP RS -1950.
After 1 year credit the amount in bank 2200,
So the sale present, so if he increase sale Rs 50 + 1950 = 2000 After 1 year the credit amount is 200.
2000, after 1-year interest is 20.
Karimkhan said:
1 decade ago
55 answer is right if we think logically, and in fact 10% of 1950 is 195, that a man paid as a interest, so his cost prize become 1950+195= 2145, and then he sold at 2200.
So clear profit is - 2200-2145=55.
So clear profit is - 2200-2145=55.
Sindhu said:
9 years ago
So 200 was the interest and 50 was the profit but why isn't 200 considered profit? I mean profit is basically the difference b/w the money I sold the product and the money I bought the product for right?
Anshu said:
1 decade ago
Hey.
It can be understand like this.
Cost to the buyer is 2200.
This cost also includes the interest too.
So the selling price by the owner would be.
SP = 2200*100/110 = 2000.
So profit = 50.
It can be understand like this.
Cost to the buyer is 2200.
This cost also includes the interest too.
So the selling price by the owner would be.
SP = 2200*100/110 = 2000.
So profit = 50.
Jatin said:
9 years ago
Guys we'll se present value of 2200.
Present value of 2200 = 2200 ÷ 1.1 = 2000,
(Let us assume present value of 2200 be x.
So x+10%of x = 2200,
1.1x = 2200,
X=2000.
Profit = 2000 - 1950 = 50.
Present value of 2200 = 2200 ÷ 1.1 = 2000,
(Let us assume present value of 2200 be x.
So x+10%of x = 2200,
1.1x = 2200,
X=2000.
Profit = 2000 - 1950 = 50.
Sivaranjani S said:
5 months ago
Amount = 2200, at interest 10%, for a credit period of 1 year,
Amount = (p*n*r)/100 + p,
2200 = (p * 1 * 10)/100) + p,
1.1 p = 2200.
p = 2000 (selling price),
profit = 1950 - 2000,
profit = 50.
Amount = (p*n*r)/100 + p,
2200 = (p * 1 * 10)/100) + p,
1.1 p = 2200.
p = 2000 (selling price),
profit = 1950 - 2000,
profit = 50.
(3)
Sai said:
1 decade ago
Using the formula sol u got is correct but logically its wrong.
let me explain
for 10% intrest 1950 will be 195 p.a
1950+195=2145
2200-2145=55
So 55 must be correct.
let me explain
for 10% intrest 1950 will be 195 p.a
1950+195=2145
2200-2145=55
So 55 must be correct.
Cholan said:
9 years ago
We assume the worth to be 100 and hence sp * 100/100 + (10 * N) where N is the number of years for which the credit is offered.
Hence we get a profit of Rs. 50/-.
Hence we get a profit of Rs. 50/-.
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