Aptitude - True Discount - Discussion
Discussion Forum : True Discount - General Questions (Q.No. 8)
8.
A man buys a watch for Rs. 1950 in cash and sells it for Rs. 2200 at a credit of 1 year. If the rate of interest is 10% per annum, the man:
Answer: Option
Explanation:
| S.P. | = P.W. of Rs. 2200 due 1 year hence | |||||
|
||||||
| = Rs. 2000. |
Gain = Rs. (2000 - 1950) = Rs. 50.
Discussion:
87 comments Page 3 of 9.
Sumanth said:
9 years ago
The answer is 55. I can explain this clearly see.
A person invested 1950 which is Principal amount.
Given Rate = 10% PA.
Time =1 year.
So, the amount he should get back at 10% after year is (110/100) * 1950 i.e 2145.
He sold it for 2200.
He got 2200 - 2145 = 55rs profit.
A person invested 1950 which is Principal amount.
Given Rate = 10% PA.
Time =1 year.
So, the amount he should get back at 10% after year is (110/100) * 1950 i.e 2145.
He sold it for 2200.
He got 2200 - 2145 = 55rs profit.
Abhinav said:
1 decade ago
He paid 1950 ...which will turn out to be 1950+195 =2145 after 1 year....
Now according to the question he gets 2200 after 1 year so the present value stands out to be 2000....
Therefore the answer has to be 55 (2200-2145) as this will be the final result of the deal....
Now according to the question he gets 2200 after 1 year so the present value stands out to be 2000....
Therefore the answer has to be 55 (2200-2145) as this will be the final result of the deal....
CHANDRA MOHAN NAHAR said:
6 years ago
cp(cost price) = 1950/-
sp(selling price) = x/-
After 1 year total amount = 2200/- And rate(r) = 10%.
Simpe interest = (P*R*T)/100.
2200 = [(x*r*t)/100] + x.
2200 = x[(10*1)/100 + 1].
x = (2200*100)/110.
x = 2000/-
Gain = sp - cp.
Gain = 2000 - 1950.
Gain = 5.
sp(selling price) = x/-
After 1 year total amount = 2200/- And rate(r) = 10%.
Simpe interest = (P*R*T)/100.
2200 = [(x*r*t)/100] + x.
2200 = x[(10*1)/100 + 1].
x = (2200*100)/110.
x = 2000/-
Gain = sp - cp.
Gain = 2000 - 1950.
Gain = 5.
(6)
Ankit said:
1 decade ago
Suppose that he bought it for Rs 2000 then after 1 year its cost must be 2200.
But the man paid 1950 i.e 50 Rs less.
Actually here we have to calculate that what should be the initial price of the watch so that after 1 year with interest its price would become 2200.
But the man paid 1950 i.e 50 Rs less.
Actually here we have to calculate that what should be the initial price of the watch so that after 1 year with interest its price would become 2200.
Suhail Abdul Rehman Chougule said:
8 years ago
The answer given here 50 is wrong it should be 55, Because Seller in Investing 1950 as to incur the cost at 10%(i.e. 195) and the buyer is paying 2200 after a year.
So, the sellers cost is 1950+195 =2145 and hence his gain in the transactions is 2200-2145 =55.
So, the sellers cost is 1950+195 =2145 and hence his gain in the transactions is 2200-2145 =55.
(7)
Abhipsa said:
2 years ago
CP(cost price) = 1950.
SP(selling price) = x.
After 1 year total amount = 2200/- And rate(r) = 10%.
Simpe interest = (P*R*T)/100.
2200 = [(x*r*t)/100] + x.
2200 = x[(10*1)/100 + 1].
x = (2200*100)/110.
x = 2000.
Gain = sp - cp.
Gain = 2000 - 1950.
Gain = 50.
SP(selling price) = x.
After 1 year total amount = 2200/- And rate(r) = 10%.
Simpe interest = (P*R*T)/100.
2200 = [(x*r*t)/100] + x.
2200 = x[(10*1)/100 + 1].
x = (2200*100)/110.
x = 2000.
Gain = sp - cp.
Gain = 2000 - 1950.
Gain = 50.
(20)
Sumedh inamdar said:
5 years ago
The 2200 at the credit of 1 year means after one year, he gets 2200 so we have to find present value at which he sells watch and then subtract it from 1950.
So 2200= p + S.I.
S.I= 2200-p.
2200-p = (p*10*1)/100.
p=2000.
Therefore profit =2000-1950 = 50rs.
So 2200= p + S.I.
S.I= 2200-p.
2200-p = (p*10*1)/100.
p=2000.
Therefore profit =2000-1950 = 50rs.
(43)
Khan said:
1 decade ago
CP=1950. SP(after 1 yr )=2200.
Let present SP=p.
Then use
SP(after 1 yr )=p+(p*r*t/100)
=> 2200=p+(p*10*1/100)
=> p=2000.
We are dealing with present values
Present cp=1950
Present sp=2000
=> Gain=2000-1950=50.
This ans is correct.
Let present SP=p.
Then use
SP(after 1 yr )=p+(p*r*t/100)
=> 2200=p+(p*10*1/100)
=> p=2000.
We are dealing with present values
Present cp=1950
Present sp=2000
=> Gain=2000-1950=50.
This ans is correct.
Sundar said:
2 decades ago
@Vidya:
P.W. - Present Worth
S.P - Selling Price
C.P. - Cost Price
T.D - True Discount
Kindly go through the Basic formulas for True Discount.
P.W. - Present Worth
S.P - Selling Price
C.P. - Cost Price
T.D - True Discount
Kindly go through the Basic formulas for True Discount.
Anurag singh said:
1 decade ago
CP=1950. sp(after 1 yr )=2200.
Let present sp=p.
then use
SP(after 1 yr )=p+(p*r*t/100)
=> 2200=p+(p*10*1/100)
=> p=2000.
We are dealing with present values
present cp=1950
present sp=2000
=> Gain=2000-1950=50.
Let present sp=p.
then use
SP(after 1 yr )=p+(p*r*t/100)
=> 2200=p+(p*10*1/100)
=> p=2000.
We are dealing with present values
present cp=1950
present sp=2000
=> Gain=2000-1950=50.
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