Aptitude - True Discount - Discussion
Discussion Forum : True Discount - General Questions (Q.No. 14)
14.
The present worth of Rs. 1404 due in two equal half-yearly installments at 8% per annum simple interest is:
Answer: Option
Explanation:
| Required sum | = P.W. of Rs. 702 due 6 months + P.W. of Rs. 702 due 1 year hence | |||||||||||||
|
||||||||||||||
| = Rs. (675 + 650) | ||||||||||||||
| = Rs. 1325. |
Discussion:
22 comments Page 1 of 3.
Pavan G J said:
5 years ago
See, first 702rs pw is calculated for 6 months and second 702rs pw is calculated for 1 year because 6months + 6months = 1year i.e., we have to calculate the present worth in present the question is like divide the sum by 2 and calculate the pw of firtst half in 6 months and pw for 2nd half for 6 months.
For 2nd half we should consider 1year because when you think wrt pw it becomes 1year. Hope all of you can get.
For 2nd half we should consider 1year because when you think wrt pw it becomes 1year. Hope all of you can get.
(1)
Sravani said:
7 years ago
hi,
In the above problem first half-yearly 702 and second half yearly 702+first half yearly i.e., 1year so in the second bracket, it is taken as one year.
A=p+S.I.
A=P+(PTR/100),
A=P(1+TR/100),
SO Coming To The Problem,
for first half-yearly,
(100*702/100+8*1/2),
For second Half Yearly,
(100*702/100+8*1).
In the above problem first half-yearly 702 and second half yearly 702+first half yearly i.e., 1year so in the second bracket, it is taken as one year.
A=p+S.I.
A=P+(PTR/100),
A=P(1+TR/100),
SO Coming To The Problem,
for first half-yearly,
(100*702/100+8*1/2),
For second Half Yearly,
(100*702/100+8*1).
Niharika said:
9 years ago
@Tejaswini.
S.I = p * t * r/100.
A = P + S.I.
= P + P * T * R/100.
= P(1 + T * R/100).
= P(100 + T*R/100).
So, P = (100 * A/100 + T * R).
S.I = p * t * r/100.
A = P + S.I.
= P + P * T * R/100.
= P(1 + T * R/100).
= P(100 + T*R/100).
So, P = (100 * A/100 + T * R).
Rajesh said:
7 years ago
Since it is in SI, only that interest part will be added in each 6 months. So, what is the need for 1year in the second part?
Tejaswini said:
1 decade ago
Though simple interest formula is p*t*r/100 why there is complexity in calculation can you please explain it in detail?
Kiranmayi paila said:
1 decade ago
First half year includes months i.e. 1/2 but second half early = 6+previous 6 months i.e. 1/2+1/2 = 1.
Harshitha said:
1 decade ago
Formula for sum=P*100/(100+(T*R)
This is nothing but derivation from simple interest = (P*T*R)/100 .
This is nothing but derivation from simple interest = (P*T*R)/100 .
Vikas said:
8 years ago
Yeah, it should be 1/2 even in the second bracket I guess because it is the equal half yearly basis.
Sara said:
1 decade ago
Can you please tell in the second bracket why did you multiply 8x1 ?
Anonymous said:
7 years ago
Why second time we take only 702 if we consider time as 1 year?
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