Aptitude - True Discount - Discussion

Discussion :: True Discount - General Questions (Q.No.14)

14. 

The present worth of Rs. 1404 due in two equal half-yearly installments at 8% per annum simple interest is:

[A]. Rs. 1325
[B]. Rs. 1300
[C]. Rs. 1350
[D]. Rs. 1500

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

Required sum = P.W. of Rs. 702 due 6 months + P.W. of Rs. 702 due 1 year hence
= Rs. 100 x 702 +
100 x 702
100 + (8 x 1)
100 + 8 x
= Rs. (675 + 650)
= Rs. 1325.

Sara said: (May 17, 2011)  
Can you please tell in the second bracket why did you multiply 8x1 ?

Harshitha said: (Jun 10, 2011)  
Formula for sum=P*100/(100+(T*R)

This is nothing but derivation from simple interest = (P*T*R)/100 .

Adi said: (Aug 13, 2011)  
Can you please explain me the solution of above question ?

Dileep said: (Feb 1, 2012)  
Since 8*(12/12)=8*1
8*(6/12)=8*(1/2)

K N Chethan said: (Sep 6, 2012)  
What is 100*702/(100+8*1/2)?

Rohit said: (May 19, 2013)  
Two equal half yearly installments?

Rahul said: (Sep 29, 2013)  
Shouldn't it be 1/2 both the times?

Kiranmayi Paila said: (Jan 4, 2015)  
First half year includes months i.e. 1/2 but second half early = 6+previous 6 months i.e. 1/2+1/2 = 1.

Pavithra said: (Jan 29, 2015)  
Can you please tell the calculation of that?

Girish said: (Aug 2, 2015)  
Why do we use 8 over there?

Tejaswini said: (Aug 21, 2015)  
Though simple interest formula is p*t*r/100 why there is complexity in calculation can you please explain it in detail?

Niharika said: (Jun 1, 2016)  
@Tejaswini.

S.I = p * t * r/100.

A = P + S.I.
= P + P * T * R/100.
= P(1 + T * R/100).
= P(100 + T*R/100).

So, P = (100 * A/100 + T * R).

Ramesh said: (Jul 19, 2016)  
Why the interest can't be 4% each time?

Bhavani said: (Jan 23, 2017)  
May, I know how 675 came?

Bhavani said: (Jan 23, 2017)  
Can anyone explain how the calculation is done?

Srishti said: (Jan 9, 2018)  
What is the formula used here? Please tell me.

Srishti said: (Jan 9, 2018)  
Why 1yr is used in second bracket?

Vikas said: (Jan 12, 2018)  
Yeah, it should be 1/2 even in the second bracket I guess because it is the equal half yearly basis.

Sravani said: (Mar 12, 2018)  
hi,
In the above problem first half-yearly 702 and second half yearly 702+first half yearly i.e., 1year so in the second bracket, it is taken as one year.

A=p+S.I.
A=P+(PTR/100),
A=P(1+TR/100),
SO Coming To The Problem,
for first half-yearly,
(100*702/100+8*1/2),
For second Half Yearly,
(100*702/100+8*1).

Rajesh said: (May 16, 2018)  
Since it is in SI, only that interest part will be added in each 6 months. So, what is the need for 1year in the second part?

Anonymous said: (Jul 8, 2018)  
Why second time we take only 702 if we consider time as 1 year?

Pavan G J said: (Aug 21, 2020)  
See, first 702rs pw is calculated for 6 months and second 702rs pw is calculated for 1 year because 6months + 6months = 1year i.e., we have to calculate the present worth in present the question is like divide the sum by 2 and calculate the pw of firtst half in 6 months and pw for 2nd half for 6 months.

For 2nd half we should consider 1year because when you think wrt pw it becomes 1year. Hope all of you can get.

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