Aptitude - True Discount - Discussion

Discussion Forum : True Discount - General Questions (Q.No. 14)
14.
The present worth of Rs. 1404 due in two equal half-yearly installments at 8% per annum simple interest is:
Rs. 1325
Rs. 1300
Rs. 1350
Rs. 1500
Answer: Option
Explanation:
Required sum = P.W. of Rs. 702 due 6 months + P.W. of Rs. 702 due 1 year hence
= Rs. 100 x 702 +
100 x 702
100 + (8 x 1)
100 + 8 x
= Rs. (675 + 650)
= Rs. 1325.
Discussion:
22 comments Page 1 of 3.

Pavan G J said:   5 years ago
See, first 702rs pw is calculated for 6 months and second 702rs pw is calculated for 1 year because 6months + 6months = 1year i.e., we have to calculate the present worth in present the question is like divide the sum by 2 and calculate the pw of firtst half in 6 months and pw for 2nd half for 6 months.

For 2nd half we should consider 1year because when you think wrt pw it becomes 1year. Hope all of you can get.
(1)

Anonymous said:   7 years ago
Why second time we take only 702 if we consider time as 1 year?

Rajesh said:   7 years ago
Since it is in SI, only that interest part will be added in each 6 months. So, what is the need for 1year in the second part?

Sravani said:   7 years ago
hi,
In the above problem first half-yearly 702 and second half yearly 702+first half yearly i.e., 1year so in the second bracket, it is taken as one year.

A=p+S.I.
A=P+(PTR/100),
A=P(1+TR/100),
SO Coming To The Problem,
for first half-yearly,
(100*702/100+8*1/2),
For second Half Yearly,
(100*702/100+8*1).

Vikas said:   8 years ago
Yeah, it should be 1/2 even in the second bracket I guess because it is the equal half yearly basis.

Srishti said:   8 years ago
Why 1yr is used in second bracket?

Srishti said:   8 years ago
What is the formula used here? Please tell me.

Bhavani said:   9 years ago
Can anyone explain how the calculation is done?

Bhavani said:   9 years ago
May, I know how 675 came?

Ramesh said:   9 years ago
Why the interest can't be 4% each time?


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