Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No. 28)
28.
X can do a piece of work in 40 days. He works at it for 8 days and then Y finished it in 16 days. How long will they together take to complete the work?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
Work done by X in 8 days = | ![]() |
1 | x 8 | ![]() |
= | 1 | . |
40 | 5 |
Remaining work = | ![]() |
1 - | 1 | ![]() |
= | 4 | . |
5 | 5 |
Now, | 4 | work is done by Y in 16 days. |
5 |
Whole work will be done by Y in | ![]() |
16 x | 5 | ![]() |
= 20 days. |
4 |
![]() |
1 | , Y's 1 day's work = | 1 | . |
40 | 20 |
(X + Y)'s 1 day's work = | ![]() |
1 | + | 1 | ![]() |
= | 3 | . |
40 | 20 | 40 |
Hence, X and Y will together complete the work in | ![]() |
40 | ![]() |
= 13 | 1 | days. |
3 | 3 |
Discussion:
33 comments Page 3 of 4.
Makvana Disha said:
9 years ago
We are also do this,
x = 40days = 100%
For 8 days = ? (20%) so, 80% works remaining. That is done by y in 16 days.
80% = 16days
100% = ? (20days)
(x + y)'s 1 day work = (1/40) + (1/20).
= (3/40).
= (40/3) = 13*1/3.
x = 40days = 100%
For 8 days = ? (20%) so, 80% works remaining. That is done by y in 16 days.
80% = 16days
100% = ? (20days)
(x + y)'s 1 day work = (1/40) + (1/20).
= (3/40).
= (40/3) = 13*1/3.
Chetan said:
10 years ago
I am not sure about this answer but changing 4/5 to 5/4 could be because we are finding complete work for Y.
In other problems where same fractions were calculated, there we were finding remaining work. Here for Y, we are finding the Whole work. This could be the reason though I am not sure.
In other problems where same fractions were calculated, there we were finding remaining work. Here for Y, we are finding the Whole work. This could be the reason though I am not sure.
Scarlett said:
10 years ago
I still can't get the 4/5 converted to 5/4. In some of the previous sums it was not converted then why here?
Sandya bujji said:
1 decade ago
Ok thank you friends I understood.
Miftah said:
1 decade ago
The main reason for 16*5/4 is unitary method. It goes like this:
It takes 4/5 work to completed by C = 16 days.
So for 1 work it will take: 16*5/4.
It takes 4/5 work to completed by C = 16 days.
So for 1 work it will take: 16*5/4.
Keerthi said:
1 decade ago
How to solve using LCM method?
Parthasarathy said:
1 decade ago
x's speed of work is 40, so work in 1 day is 1/40.
x does 8 days and leaves, so work done is 8*(1/40) = 1/5.
x does only 1/5 of the work , so remaining work to be done is 4/5 (1-1/5 = 4/5).
y's speed of work is not given, let us take it as 'K'. but he completes the remaining 4/5 work in 16 days.
So 16*(1/K)=4/5 which gives K = 20.
Now both together takes ( x speed of work + y speed of work).
1/40 + 1/20 = 3/40 = 1/(40/3) = 1/(13 1/3).
So the ans is 13 1/3.
x does 8 days and leaves, so work done is 8*(1/40) = 1/5.
x does only 1/5 of the work , so remaining work to be done is 4/5 (1-1/5 = 4/5).
y's speed of work is not given, let us take it as 'K'. but he completes the remaining 4/5 work in 16 days.
So 16*(1/K)=4/5 which gives K = 20.
Now both together takes ( x speed of work + y speed of work).
1/40 + 1/20 = 3/40 = 1/(40/3) = 1/(13 1/3).
So the ans is 13 1/3.
Heena roy said:
1 decade ago
X's 1 day work 1/40 ? how ?
Sravani said:
1 decade ago
Ya we can't get. The remaining work of y is 4/5. But it taken has 5/4.
Student said:
1 decade ago
Can't get it because what does it mean of 16*5/4?
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