Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No. 11)
11.
A can finish a work in 18 days and B can do the same work in 15 days. B worked for 10 days and left the job. In how many days, A alone can finish the remaining work?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
B's 10 day's work = | ![]() |
1 | x 10 | ![]() |
= | 2 | . |
15 | 3 |
Remaining work = | ![]() |
1 - | 2 | ![]() |
= | 1 | . |
3 | 3 |
Now, | 1 | work is done by A in 1 day. |
18 |
![]() |
1 | work is done by A in | ![]() |
18 x | 1 | ![]() |
= 6 days. |
3 | 3 |
Discussion:
63 comments Page 7 of 7.
Larisa said:
2 years ago
@All.
Here is the Easier method:
Efficiency = A : 18 = 5 > 90.
B : 15 = 6 > 90.
Total work = 90:
B work for 10 days so = 6× 10 = 60,
90 - 60 = 30,
A's per day efficiency = 5 so , 30 ,÷ 5 = 6,
So 6 days is the answer.
Here is the Easier method:
Efficiency = A : 18 = 5 > 90.
B : 15 = 6 > 90.
Total work = 90:
B work for 10 days so = 6× 10 = 60,
90 - 60 = 30,
A's per day efficiency = 5 so , 30 ,÷ 5 = 6,
So 6 days is the answer.
(13)
Uday Bundele said:
2 years ago
A = 18 Day's.
B = 15 Day's.
The LCM is 90.
Easy and short trick.
Before are indicate (+) sing.
After are indicate (-) sing.
So according to question B left work after 10 day's.
90-10(6)/5 ans = 6.
B = 15 Day's.
The LCM is 90.
Easy and short trick.
Before are indicate (+) sing.
After are indicate (-) sing.
So according to question B left work after 10 day's.
90-10(6)/5 ans = 6.
(13)
AMAL RAJ R said:
3 months ago
A+ B = 30,
LCM = 30,
So Efficiency = 1.
That means A and B can do 1/2 work each on 1 day.
Therefore , for completing 30 units A will take 60 days.
LCM = 30,
So Efficiency = 1.
That means A and B can do 1/2 work each on 1 day.
Therefore , for completing 30 units A will take 60 days.
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