Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No. 6)
6.
If 6 men and 8 boys can do a piece of work in 10 days while 26 men and 48 boys can do the same in 2 days, the time taken by 15 men and 20 boys in doing the same type of work will be:
Answer: Option
Explanation:
Let 1 man's 1 day's work = x and 1 boy's 1 day's work = y.
| Then, 6x + 8y = | 1 | and 26x + 48y = | 1 | . |
| 10 | 2 |
| Solving these two equations, we get : x = | 1 | and y = | 1 | . |
| 100 | 200 |
| (15 men + 20 boy)'s 1 day's work = |  |
15 | + | 20 |  |
= | 1 | . |
| 100 | 200 | 4 |
15 men and 20 boys can do the work in 4 days.
Discussion:
202 comments Page 5 of 21.
Atul1487 said:
1 decade ago
We can do this in single step.
6 men and 8 boys can do work in 10 days.
So 6m+8b=1/10.
So we have to find 15m+20b=?
6m+8b=1/10.
Divide each term by 2 in both side we get,
3m+4b=1/20.
And multiply each term with 5.
15m+20b=5*120.
15m+20b=1/4.
So answer is 4 days simple.
6 men and 8 boys can do work in 10 days.
So 6m+8b=1/10.
So we have to find 15m+20b=?
6m+8b=1/10.
Divide each term by 2 in both side we get,
3m+4b=1/20.
And multiply each term with 5.
15m+20b=5*120.
15m+20b=1/4.
So answer is 4 days simple.
Balu said:
6 years ago
If X is the overall work then,
X=10(6m+8b)=60m+80b-----1st eqn.
X=2(26m+48b)=52m+96b-----2nd eqn.
Equating the both eqns 1 and 2
We get m:b=1:2 it means 1man equal to 2 boys so 15m+20b=30b+20b=50b.
From eqn 1,12b+8b=20b can do in 10days.
Then cm to 20b=10.
50b=y.
Y=4 days.
X=10(6m+8b)=60m+80b-----1st eqn.
X=2(26m+48b)=52m+96b-----2nd eqn.
Equating the both eqns 1 and 2
We get m:b=1:2 it means 1man equal to 2 boys so 15m+20b=30b+20b=50b.
From eqn 1,12b+8b=20b can do in 10days.
Then cm to 20b=10.
50b=y.
Y=4 days.
Hari said:
1 decade ago
We can do this in single step.
6 men and 8 boys can do work in 8 days.
So 6m+8b=1/10
So we have to find 15m+20b=?
6m+8b=1/10.
Divide each term by 2 in both side we get
3m+4b=1/20.
And multiply each term with 5
15m+20b=5*120.
15m+20b=1/4.
So answer is 4 days simple.
6 men and 8 boys can do work in 8 days.
So 6m+8b=1/10
So we have to find 15m+20b=?
6m+8b=1/10.
Divide each term by 2 in both side we get
3m+4b=1/20.
And multiply each term with 5
15m+20b=5*120.
15m+20b=1/4.
So answer is 4 days simple.
Nabil said:
1 decade ago
10 (6m + 8b) = 2 (26m + 48b).
That mean 1man = 2boys.
As the total work is 10 (6m + 8b) so put 1m = 2b from above equation.
You will get 10 (20) than mean 200 md work.
If 15 men & 20 boys thn total number in terms of men would be 50.
So 200/50 = 4 days.
That mean 1man = 2boys.
As the total work is 10 (6m + 8b) so put 1m = 2b from above equation.
You will get 10 (20) than mean 200 md work.
If 15 men & 20 boys thn total number in terms of men would be 50.
So 200/50 = 4 days.
Ovii said:
1 decade ago
I have a question from himadri or anyone who can answer this.
What will be the answer if the last line of question be like "25 men and 19 boys in doing the same type of work will be". Then we still continue multipling it by 5 or it has another way?
What will be the answer if the last line of question be like "25 men and 19 boys in doing the same type of work will be". Then we still continue multipling it by 5 or it has another way?
Deepak said:
1 decade ago
Lets equation 6m + 8b can a work in 10 days .....(1).
If we see that last line of que. We found 15m +20b how much time will taken.
(6m +8b)*2.5, we will get 15m+20b. So we can divide the time taken by equation 1 by 2.5
10/2.5 = 4 DAYS.
If we see that last line of que. We found 15m +20b how much time will taken.
(6m +8b)*2.5, we will get 15m+20b. So we can divide the time taken by equation 1 by 2.5
10/2.5 = 4 DAYS.
Michelle said:
1 decade ago
I'm still confuse about how we got 1/100 and 1/200. I'm trying to figure out this problem from formula perspective (TIME X RATE = WORK).
However, it seems like everyone is just free styling with there methods to this question, I need structure.
However, it seems like everyone is just free styling with there methods to this question, I need structure.
Moses said:
9 years ago
Work= men * days.
(6m+8b)*10 = (26m+48b)*2 (since work is same).
By solving above equation, we get "m=2b".
(15m+20b) * days = (6m+8b) * 10,
(30b+20b) *days = (12b+8b) * 10 (since m=2b),
By solving above equation we get,
Days = 4.
(6m+8b)*10 = (26m+48b)*2 (since work is same).
By solving above equation, we get "m=2b".
(15m+20b) * days = (6m+8b) * 10,
(30b+20b) *days = (12b+8b) * 10 (since m=2b),
By solving above equation we get,
Days = 4.
Nikhil mane said:
7 years ago
1st
6men+8boy=1/10days.
Take 2 common from above eq.
2(3men+4boy)=1/10days.
3men+4boy=1/(10*2)
3men+4boy=1/20.
15men+20 boys= ??days.
3men+4boy=1/20.---->multiply this term with 5.
5(3men+4boy)=(1/20)*5.
Now solve:
15men+20boy=4days.
6men+8boy=1/10days.
Take 2 common from above eq.
2(3men+4boy)=1/10days.
3men+4boy=1/(10*2)
3men+4boy=1/20.
15men+20 boys= ??days.
3men+4boy=1/20.---->multiply this term with 5.
5(3men+4boy)=(1/20)*5.
Now solve:
15men+20boy=4days.
Varuni said:
10 years ago
Because their one day work will be 1\10.
While the total number of days to do the work = 10.
Solution :
2x + 3y = 1/10.
3x +2y = 1/8.
20x + 30y = 1.
24x + 16y = 1.
120x + 180y = 6.
120x + 80y = 5.
100y = 1.
y = 1/100.
x = 7/200.
While the total number of days to do the work = 10.
Solution :
2x + 3y = 1/10.
3x +2y = 1/8.
20x + 30y = 1.
24x + 16y = 1.
120x + 180y = 6.
120x + 80y = 5.
100y = 1.
y = 1/100.
x = 7/200.
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