Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No. 5)
5.
A alone can do a piece of work in 6 days and B alone in 8 days. A and B undertook to do it for Rs. 3200. With the help of C, they completed the work in 3 days. How much is to be paid to C?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
| C's 1 day's work = | 1 | - |  |
1 | + | 1 |  |
= | 1 | - | 7 | = | 1 | . |
| 3 | 6 | 8 | 3 | 24 | 24 |
| A's wages : B's wages : C's wages = | 1 | : | 1 | : | 1 | = 4 : 3 : 1. |
| 6 | 8 | 24 |
 C's share (for 3 days) = Rs. |
|
3 x | 1 | x 3200 | |
= Rs. 400. |
| 24 |
Discussion:
185 comments Page 7 of 19.
Arnab said:
1 decade ago
A lot simpler method --
A does 1/6 in 1 day.. B does 1/8 in one day..So they both do (1/6+1/8=7/24)in 1 day.. Hence they will finish the work in 24/7 days..
they get paid 3200 for 24/7 units of work..hence they'll be paid 3200*7/24 for 1 units of work..which is equal to 2800/3..
now A and B were finishing it in 24/7 days but on C's help they do it in 3 days..hence they are saved 24/7-3 units of work which is equal to 3/7 units of works and C will be paid for this..now 1 unit's pay was 2800/3..hence 3/7 units pay is (2800*3)/(3*7) = 400!!
A does 1/6 in 1 day.. B does 1/8 in one day..So they both do (1/6+1/8=7/24)in 1 day.. Hence they will finish the work in 24/7 days..
they get paid 3200 for 24/7 units of work..hence they'll be paid 3200*7/24 for 1 units of work..which is equal to 2800/3..
now A and B were finishing it in 24/7 days but on C's help they do it in 3 days..hence they are saved 24/7-3 units of work which is equal to 3/7 units of works and C will be paid for this..now 1 unit's pay was 2800/3..hence 3/7 units pay is (2800*3)/(3*7) = 400!!
Anandhakumar said:
1 decade ago
Let us take total work as the L.C.M of 6,8,3 i.e 24.
So A's per day work is 24/6=4, B's =24/8=3, a+b+c's=24/3=8.
So C's Ability is= 8-(4+3)=1 ie(a+b+c-a-b).
So the amount has to be divided into 4:3:1
So C's share is (1/8)*3200=400
So A's per day work is 24/6=4, B's =24/8=3, a+b+c's=24/3=8.
So C's Ability is= 8-(4+3)=1 ie(a+b+c-a-b).
So the amount has to be divided into 4:3:1
So C's share is (1/8)*3200=400
Preeti2009_delhi@yahoo.com said:
1 decade ago
If both a and b work together on the single piece than in how many days they will complete their work and how?
Kavitha said:
1 decade ago
One day work of A+B = (1/6)+(1/8) = 7/24
3 days work of A+B = (7/24)*3 = 7/8
Total amount=3200
3 days work of A+B with the amount 3200 = (7/8)*3200 = 2800
(A+B)'s share is 2800
C's share is = 3200-2800 = 400.
3 days work of A+B = (7/24)*3 = 7/8
Total amount=3200
3 days work of A+B with the amount 3200 = (7/8)*3200 = 2800
(A+B)'s share is 2800
C's share is = 3200-2800 = 400.
Kartik m. said:
1 decade ago
@pradeep koney
Your method is nice.
Your method is nice.
Aitya said:
1 decade ago
A very simple method is :-
The total complition money of the job is 3200.
A completes the job in 6 day's..
So his per day fees is 3200/6=533.33
B completes the job in 8 day's..
So his per day fees is 3200/8=400
a,b & c complets the job in 3days..
(3*A'per day fees + 3*B'per day fees )=3200
(3*533.33+3*400+3*c'per day fees)=3200
3*c'per day fees=3200-(1600+1200)
=3200-2800
C' full fee of the work is=400
The total complition money of the job is 3200.
A completes the job in 6 day's..
So his per day fees is 3200/6=533.33
B completes the job in 8 day's..
So his per day fees is 3200/8=400
a,b & c complets the job in 3days..
(3*A'per day fees + 3*B'per day fees )=3200
(3*533.33+3*400+3*c'per day fees)=3200
3*c'per day fees=3200-(1600+1200)
=3200-2800
C' full fee of the work is=400
Ramkumar said:
1 decade ago
Pradeep Koney method is easily understood.
Naman said:
1 decade ago
This is very easy to understand .....
in last line....
there wages is 4:3:1 ....so wage of c is..
===1*3200/(4+3+1)====3200/8===400
in last line....
there wages is 4:3:1 ....so wage of c is..
===1*3200/(4+3+1)====3200/8===400
Parvatraj said:
1 decade ago
According the quetion,
A can do in 1 day 1/6 work. in 3 days 3/6 work.
B can do in 1 day 1/8 work. in 3 days 3/8 work.
So C has done (1-(3/6+3/8)) work. That is 1/8 work.
So he has to get 1/3 of total amount. i.e, 3200/8=400 rs.
But the calculation they have given is wrong. but answer is right unfortunately.
A can do in 1 day 1/6 work. in 3 days 3/6 work.
B can do in 1 day 1/8 work. in 3 days 3/8 work.
So C has done (1-(3/6+3/8)) work. That is 1/8 work.
So he has to get 1/3 of total amount. i.e, 3200/8=400 rs.
But the calculation they have given is wrong. but answer is right unfortunately.
Sekhar said:
1 decade ago
Pradeep koni explains very very good.
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