Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No. 5)
5.
A alone can do a piece of work in 6 days and B alone in 8 days. A and B undertook to do it for Rs. 3200. With the help of C, they completed the work in 3 days. How much is to be paid to C?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
| C's 1 day's work = | 1 | - |  |
1 | + | 1 |  |
= | 1 | - | 7 | = | 1 | . |
| 3 | 6 | 8 | 3 | 24 | 24 |
| A's wages : B's wages : C's wages = | 1 | : | 1 | : | 1 | = 4 : 3 : 1. |
| 6 | 8 | 24 |
 C's share (for 3 days) = Rs. |
|
3 x | 1 | x 3200 | |
= Rs. 400. |
| 24 |
Discussion:
185 comments Page 14 of 19.
B.indirasouajyaan said:
1 decade ago
The ratio obtained is 4:3:1. Then why did you multiply 3*1/24*3200? we should not multiply with 1?
Hema said:
1 decade ago
Yes, I agree that amount 3200 in the question is not clearly mentioned. Is that for per day?
Vinod Anand said:
1 decade ago
If A=1/6 ,B=1/8 and A+B+C = 1/3 ----(1).
A+B = 1/6 + 1/8 = 7/24.
Put the value of A+B in Eq.(1).
Than C = 1/8 - 7/24 = 1/24.
The Value of C' is 1/24.
Now the Ratio of A:B:C =1/6:1/8:1/24 (The L.C.M Of 1/6+1/8+1/24 is 24)
A:B:C =4:3:1.
Than Amt.is Rs.3200.
So the C' will be paid = 3200 X 1/8.
= Rs. 400.00 Answer.
A+B = 1/6 + 1/8 = 7/24.
Put the value of A+B in Eq.(1).
Than C = 1/8 - 7/24 = 1/24.
The Value of C' is 1/24.
Now the Ratio of A:B:C =1/6:1/8:1/24 (The L.C.M Of 1/6+1/8+1/24 is 24)
A:B:C =4:3:1.
Than Amt.is Rs.3200.
So the C' will be paid = 3200 X 1/8.
= Rs. 400.00 Answer.
Sangeethavimalraj said:
1 decade ago
Total amount is 3200,
Ratio 4:3:1,
4*x+3*x+1*x = 3200.
8x = 3200.
x = 400.
Ratio 4:3:1,
4*x+3*x+1*x = 3200.
8x = 3200.
x = 400.
Somesh said:
1 decade ago
If one person A takes "x" days to complete a work alone and another person B takes "y" days to complete the same work alone, then the number days both A and B take working together is : x y/ (x + y).
I hope you will surely understand what you have to do.
I hope you will surely understand what you have to do.
Maruthupandian said:
1 decade ago
@Arnab.
In your explanation how do you do this (24/7-3) for calculating days of C alone?
won't it be (3-24/7) ?
because (A+B+C)-(A+B) = C.
In your explanation how do you do this (24/7-3) for calculating days of C alone?
won't it be (3-24/7) ?
because (A+B+C)-(A+B) = C.
Ranjeet singh said:
1 decade ago
Because lastly A, B, C are working together for completing the work and we all know that no one work for free of cost so we will have to involve C in 3200 distribution. Initially only A and B working that's why 3200 distributed between A and B.
Bitu said:
1 decade ago
According to the question 3200.00 was given to be the amount taken by both A & B collectively for completing the work together. Then how could it be treated as the total amount obtained by the three to be distributed among.
Ayan sett said:
1 decade ago
@pradeep koney
thanks..
thanks..
Rahul chourasia said:
1 decade ago
Wages ratio is not important short method is
c work in 3 days
a & b money =3200
c work ratio is 1/24 by method (1/3-(1/6+1/8))
last calculation is 3*1/24*3200
ans is 400
c work in 3 days
a & b money =3200
c work ratio is 1/24 by method (1/3-(1/6+1/8))
last calculation is 3*1/24*3200
ans is 400
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