Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion

Discussion Forum : Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No. 30)
30.
A and B together can do a piece of work in 30 days. A having worked for 16 days, B finishes the remaining work alone in 44 days. In how many days shall B finish the whole work alone?
30 days
40 days
60 days
70 days
Answer: Option
Explanation:

Let A's 1 day's work = x and B's 1 day's work = y.

Then, x + y = 1 and 16x + 44y = 1.
30

Solving these two equations, we get: x = 1 and y = 1
60 60

B's 1 day's work = 1 .
60

Hence, B alone shall finish the whole work in 60 days.

Discussion:
97 comments Page 4 of 10.

Shyam said:   1 decade ago
I got the same answer as Sai and Kaustubha.

Sneha said:   1 decade ago
Yet I don't get anything how the answer is 60. Please explain it.

x+y = 1/60 and 16x+44y = 1/60.

How it comes?

IOvd said:   1 decade ago
@Sneha.

x+y = 1/30 .....(i).
16x+44y = 1 .....(ii).

Multiply equation (i) by 16 we get,

16x+16y = 8/15(ie 16/30).....(iii).

Now subtract equation (iii) from equation (ii).

16x+44y = 1.
- 16x+16y = 8/15.
-----------------
+28y = 7/15 (ie 1-8/15).

Now y = 7/15*1/28.
y = 1/15*1/4.
y = 1/60.

I hope u get it now.

Ram said:   1 decade ago
1/A + 1/B = 1/30 ------ 1.
16/A + 44/B = 1 ------- 2.

Solving these 2 equation:

B = 60.

Sakshi said:   1 decade ago
I can't understand. Why we have used x? We did not do this in other question.

Tarik Khan said:   1 decade ago
Let total work = 1.

Work done by A is = x.

So remaining work that is done by B = 1-x.

So, total time to complete the whole work by A = 16/x....(1).

Similarly total time to complete the whole work by B = 44/(1-x).....(2).

From (1) and (2) we get.

16/x = 44/(1-x).....(3).

Solving (3) we get.

x = 4/15.

So 1-x = 11/15.

Now for B takes time 44 days to complete 11/15 work.

So total time to complete the whole work alone B = (15/11)x44 = 60 (ans).

Hetal said:   1 decade ago
Yes I also get the same answer like @Sai and @Kaustubha Sen.

a+b = 1/30 (1 day's work).

So (a+b) work together for 16 days.

So, 1/30*16 = 16/30. So we get 8/15 work done together for 16 days.

Now remaining work = 1-8/15 we get 7/15.

That's why if 7/15 remaining work b takes 44 days then work done by b in 1 day.

= 1*7/44*15.

I got 94.28.

Sunil kumar said:   1 decade ago
Any easy method better than above all? All are did in same method. Somehow tough above all the methods.

Sunil kumar said:   1 decade ago
Why can't we take 1/x, 1/y instead of x, y as one day work?

Usha said:   1 decade ago
I agree with @Sunil kumar.

Why it has been calculated as x+y=1/30 instead of considering 1/x + 1/Y = 1/30.

Kindly explain, I understood the above calculations but the basic equation why it was altered that I din't got.


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