Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion

Discussion Forum : Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No. 30)
30.
A and B together can do a piece of work in 30 days. A having worked for 16 days, B finishes the remaining work alone in 44 days. In how many days shall B finish the whole work alone?
30 days
40 days
60 days
70 days
Answer: Option
Explanation:

Let A's 1 day's work = x and B's 1 day's work = y.

Then, x + y = 1 and 16x + 44y = 1.
30

Solving these two equations, we get: x = 1 and y = 1
60 60

B's 1 day's work = 1 .
60

Hence, B alone shall finish the whole work in 60 days.

Discussion:
97 comments Page 2 of 10.

Vidhya said:   1 decade ago
What is the need to write number of days as a ratio?

Why cant we take it as x+y=30 ?

Yogi said:   1 decade ago
@Manasa

Yes you are corrrect.

SHEIK said:   1 decade ago
@Kanna

Your explanation is good and easily understandable.

Soniya said:   1 decade ago
@kanna.

You are right. Thanks.

Thangeswari said:   1 decade ago
Kanna.

Thanks a lot. Your explanation was excellent.

Pandit said:   1 decade ago
@Kanna.

You explain very easly. Thanks a lot.

Priyanka said:   1 decade ago
@vidya :- we are taking 1/30 , becoz we are talking about work completed by x and y in one day .

Raj said:   1 decade ago
@vidya.
Given x and why worked for 30 days.
So, x and y's one days work is 1/30.

Vino said:   1 decade ago
For eg:16x+44y=1:
A work is completed in 16days
For 16 days A's work is 16*x;
Remaining work=1-A's work...so
Remaining +A's work=1
Remaining work is done by 44 days=44*y
that's it.

Ats said:   1 decade ago
Hi All,

Can somebody please explain me how solving the following equations.

1) x+y = 1/30.
2) 16x+44y = 1.

Result in x = 1/60 & why = 1/60 ?


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