Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion

Discussion Forum : Profit and Loss - General Questions (Q.No. 5)
5.
A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%?
3
4
5
6
Answer: Option
Explanation:

C.P. of 6 toffees = Re. 1

S.P. of 6 toffees = 120% of Re. 1 = Rs. 6
5

For Rs. 6 , toffees sold = 6.
5

For Re. 1, toffees sold = 6 x 5 = 5.
6

Video Explanation: https://youtu.be/7wKrnZ0LKA8

Discussion:
211 comments Page 8 of 22.

Jai said:   8 years ago
@Vaisnavi

You've brought 6 toffees in 1 Rs and only sold 5 Toffees in 1 Rs. So you've recovered your 1 Rs and still 1 toffee in your hand. Let you will sell this 6th toffee for X Rs.

So CP for 6 Toffees = 1 Rs.
SP for 6 Toffee = 1+X Rs.

So clearly it will be profit case.

Nikunj Sahni said:   8 years ago
I have most simple solution, I hope you'll love it.

If you've selling some toffees at 1 Rs and You're getting 20% profit so you must have purchased those toffees at amount < 1. Let You've purchased those toffees for X Rs

That why for profit % , we will write equation.

(SP - CP) / CP * 100 = Profit%.
(1-X)/X*100 = 20.
(1-X)/X = 20/100 --> 100 - 100X = 20X ---> 120X = 100 ---> X =100/120 = 5/6 Rs
It means that you've purchased some toffees for 6/5 Rs and you're selling same toffees for 1 Rs and you're getting 20% Profit.

So last step would be finding toffees we brought at 6/5 Rs that would be the final solution.

In 1 Rs we brought --- 6 Toffees.
So in 5/6 Rs we brought -- 6*(5/6) Toffees or 5 Toffees.

So Ans = 5 Toffees.
(2)

Soumya Ranjan Nayak said:   8 years ago
1rs = 100 paisa
Sp of 1 toffee is 100/6.
New Sp of 1 toffe=120/6=20paisa ( as 20%profit),
In 100 paisa there will be 100÷20= 5 toffees.

Kapil said:   8 years ago
@Sundar.

Nice explanation. Thank you.

Vaishnavi said:   8 years ago
For 1rs = 6toffee is cp, and 1rs = 5toffee is sp. Then how it will be profit?

Deepakjain said:   8 years ago
Easy way.

Let 6 toffe taken = 100 paise.
20% gain so 120 paise for 6(means 1 toffe given in 20 paise).
Then in 100 paise only 5 toffe will be given(20 * 5).

Khadarbaba said:   9 years ago
@Prasanth.

In problem, profit is 20%.
For 1 Re. he bought 6 toffees
And he need to gain 20% profit.
Profit is always calculated on cost price.
20% of 1Re. is 0.2
So, he need to sell those toffees at 1.2 Re. to get 20% profit.
But, he asked how many he need to sell for 1 Re.,

For 1.2 Re., he sells 6 toffees; so, For 1 Re. he sells = (6*10)/12=5 [cross multiplication]

I hope you will understood now.

Prasanth said:   9 years ago
Can you please anyone clear my doubt? How 120% comes?

Why they take 120%?

Rajiv Hussain said:   9 years ago
I have a question, can anyone solve this question for me?

A man buys an egg at 2 for Rs 1 and an equal number at 3 for rs 2 and sells the whole at 5 for rs 3. What is gain or loss?

Ashish kumar said:   9 years ago
C.P. of 6 tofees = 120% of S.P.
6 = 120/100 * S.P.
S.P = 5.


Post your comments here:

Your comments will be displayed after verification.