Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion

A watch sold for Rs 448 gives a profit of only 12%. Find the profit % if the selling price had been Rs 512.

A man bought 6 toffees for 1 rs...
sold it for 20% profit...so he sold it for 1.2 rs...
so to get 1 rs back he must sell 5 toffees...simple as that..
ie 6 toffees cost 1.2 so 1 toffee cost 1.2/6=.2
0.2*5=1...

So answer is 5.

How you use 6*5/6. I can't understand that ?

Let's assume vendor bought 60 tofees.
So he spent Rs.10 (1/6*60).

Now he want 20% profit on Rs.10 i.e Rs.12.
So now he must sell that 60 tofees for Rs.12
So for 1 rupee 5 (60/12) tofees has to sell.

Its simple
lets assume we have 6 apples and we need to distribute each apple to a person.
in case we took one apple from that
then we can able to distribute only to 5 persons.
in the same way

1re ------> 6 toffees

have to gain 20%.

0.2rs(20paise) is the 20% from 1re

take that 0.2 for urself that is ur gain

so we can sell only for 0.8 rs in the place of 1 re

so

for 1re - - - - -> 6 toffees
for 0.8 rs - - - -> ?

(0.8*6)/1 = 4.8 = 5(round it off to nearest integer). this method is applicable to all kinda problems like this

How do you take 120%.

20% of 1 is .2.

Hence to meet the profit with the cost price totally it will be 1.2.

Hence 6 toffees are there the profit should be 20%.

Divide those 6 toffees by 1.2.

6/1.2 = 5.

6 tofee for 1 re
1 tofee for 1/6 = .16

g% = g*100/c.p

gain= s.p - c.p

s.p = x

g%=20

20 = (x-.16)*100/.16

x=.192

s.p of 1 =.192

for 5 =.96

there fore 5 tofee

Can anyone please explain :

See according to the formula we have SP= (100+gain%) *CP/100.

So here generally taking SP=120*6/100=36/5. (according to formula). Can anyone explain when that formula should be used and why are we not using that formula for this sum.

6 toffes cost=Rs 1=100 paisa
profit t0 be made =20% Of 100
in order to make 20 % profit 3 toffes should be sold for 60 paisa
so,60 paisa =3 toffe
1 paisa=3/60
100 paisa=(3/60)*100
=5 toffes.