Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Profit and Loss - General Questions (Q.No. 5)
5.
A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
C.P. of 6 toffees = Re. 1
| S.P. of 6 toffees = 120% of Re. 1 = Rs. | 6 |
| 5 |
| For Rs. | 6 | , toffees sold = 6. |
| 5 |
| For Re. 1, toffees sold = |  |
6 x | 5 |  |
= 5. |
| 6 |
Video Explanation: https://youtu.be/7wKrnZ0LKA8
Discussion:
211 comments Page 3 of 22.
Avdhesh singh said:
9 years ago
Guys who have a problem to understand 120% they can refer this answer.
First of all, we are not thinking about no of chocolate.
C.P =1rs (price for 6 chocolate).
Gain = 20%.
S.P =? (let x).
Gain=[ (S.P - C. P) /C.P] * 100.
20 = {(x - 1) /1] * 100.
So, x = 6/5 Rs (surely it'll be selling price of 6 chocolate).
First of all, we are not thinking about no of chocolate.
C.P =1rs (price for 6 chocolate).
Gain = 20%.
S.P =? (let x).
Gain=[ (S.P - C. P) /C.P] * 100.
20 = {(x - 1) /1] * 100.
So, x = 6/5 Rs (surely it'll be selling price of 6 chocolate).
Motilal said:
1 decade ago
Best Solution:
Cost price of 6 tofees = Re.1.
Then, cost price of 1 tofee = Re. 1/6.
Profit is given 20%.
We know selling price = (100+gain%)*c.p./100.
Then, s.p. of 1 tofee = 120*(1/6)/100 i.e. 1/5.
now,
At Re.1/5 we sell 1 tofee.
At Re. 1 we must sell 1*(5/1) i.e. 5 tofees to gain 20% profit.
Cost price of 6 tofees = Re.1.
Then, cost price of 1 tofee = Re. 1/6.
Profit is given 20%.
We know selling price = (100+gain%)*c.p./100.
Then, s.p. of 1 tofee = 120*(1/6)/100 i.e. 1/5.
now,
At Re.1/5 we sell 1 tofee.
At Re. 1 we must sell 1*(5/1) i.e. 5 tofees to gain 20% profit.
Iamateur said:
1 decade ago
C.P. of 6 toffee s---> 1 rs.
Given profit % = 20%
=>S.P of 6 toffees = 120%
120% of 1
= (120/100) x 1
= (12/10) x 1
= (6/5) x 1
= 6/5
=1.2 rs.
Now consider only S.P
1.2 rs--> 6 toffee
1 rs ---> ? toffee
6/1.2 =5.
As the question is asked to find only SP so for 5 toffees 1rs.
Given profit % = 20%
=>S.P of 6 toffees = 120%
120% of 1
= (120/100) x 1
= (12/10) x 1
= (6/5) x 1
= 6/5
=1.2 rs.
Now consider only S.P
1.2 rs--> 6 toffee
1 rs ---> ? toffee
6/1.2 =5.
As the question is asked to find only SP so for 5 toffees 1rs.
S. k. dwivedi said:
9 years ago
Let the total toffees are 2x in which x toffees are Bought at 6 for a rupees and x toffees are bought 4 for a rupees.
Then total rupees will be x/6+x/4 = 5x/12.
Now total toffees are baughtat5for a rupees then total money = 2x/5.
It's loss= 5x/12-2x/5 = x/60.loss% = x/60/5x/12*100 = 4%.
Then total rupees will be x/6+x/4 = 5x/12.
Now total toffees are baughtat5for a rupees then total money = 2x/5.
It's loss= 5x/12-2x/5 = x/60.loss% = x/60/5x/12*100 = 4%.
Jai said:
8 years ago
@Vaisnavi
You've brought 6 toffees in 1 Rs and only sold 5 Toffees in 1 Rs. So you've recovered your 1 Rs and still 1 toffee in your hand. Let you will sell this 6th toffee for X Rs.
So CP for 6 Toffees = 1 Rs.
SP for 6 Toffee = 1+X Rs.
So clearly it will be profit case.
You've brought 6 toffees in 1 Rs and only sold 5 Toffees in 1 Rs. So you've recovered your 1 Rs and still 1 toffee in your hand. Let you will sell this 6th toffee for X Rs.
So CP for 6 Toffees = 1 Rs.
SP for 6 Toffee = 1+X Rs.
So clearly it will be profit case.
Anonymous said:
10 years ago
You can do even like this.
6 toffees for 1 rupee => 1 toffee for 1/6 rupees.
So to gain 20% profit.
Lets say he sells x toffees for 1 rupee => 1 toffee for 1/x rupees.
Now gain can be written as (1/x-1/6)/(1/6)*100.
This should be 20 (Easily make out here x is 5).
6 toffees for 1 rupee => 1 toffee for 1/6 rupees.
So to gain 20% profit.
Lets say he sells x toffees for 1 rupee => 1 toffee for 1/x rupees.
Now gain can be written as (1/x-1/6)/(1/6)*100.
This should be 20 (Easily make out here x is 5).
Habiba said:
9 years ago
6 toffee = 1Rs cp
1 toffee = 1/6 Rs. cp
20% profit,so,
cp = 100.
sp = 120.
When cp is 100, sp is 120.
cp is 1, sp is 120/100,
cp is 1/6,sp is = 120/100.1/6,
= 1/5 rs.
Now, for 1/5 Rs = 1 toffee.
for 1rs = 5/1.1 = 5 toffees => answer.
1 toffee = 1/6 Rs. cp
20% profit,so,
cp = 100.
sp = 120.
When cp is 100, sp is 120.
cp is 1, sp is 120/100,
cp is 1/6,sp is = 120/100.1/6,
= 1/5 rs.
Now, for 1/5 Rs = 1 toffee.
for 1rs = 5/1.1 = 5 toffees => answer.
Rahul Yadav said:
9 years ago
CP of 6 toffees = Re 1.
Profit % = 20%.
As we know profit % = (profit/Cp) * 100.
20 = profit/1 * 100.
Profit = Re 1/5.
SP for 6 toffees = Profit + Cp.
= (1/5) + 5.
= 6/5.
So SP of 6 toffees = Re 6/5.
For Re 6/5 = 6 toffees.
Re 1= 6 * 5/6 toffees.
Re 1 = 5 toffees.
Profit % = 20%.
As we know profit % = (profit/Cp) * 100.
20 = profit/1 * 100.
Profit = Re 1/5.
SP for 6 toffees = Profit + Cp.
= (1/5) + 5.
= 6/5.
So SP of 6 toffees = Re 6/5.
For Re 6/5 = 6 toffees.
Re 1= 6 * 5/6 toffees.
Re 1 = 5 toffees.
Shalu said:
1 decade ago
Can anyone please explain :
See according to the formula we have SP= (100+gain%) *CP/100.
So here generally taking SP=120*6/100=36/5. (according to formula). Can anyone explain when that formula should be used and why are we not using that formula for this sum.
See according to the formula we have SP= (100+gain%) *CP/100.
So here generally taking SP=120*6/100=36/5. (according to formula). Can anyone explain when that formula should be used and why are we not using that formula for this sum.
Gowtham said:
7 years ago
Guys they have asked how toffees he has to sell so that the profit is 20%, so why do you calculate selling price 6/5, all have mentioned selling price of 6 toffees is 6/5 then it means 6 toffees are sold right, where does 5 toffees come?
Please explain me.
Please explain me.
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