Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Profit and Loss - General Questions (Q.No. 5)
5.
A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
C.P. of 6 toffees = Re. 1
| S.P. of 6 toffees = 120% of Re. 1 = Rs. | 6 |
| 5 |
| For Rs. | 6 | , toffees sold = 6. |
| 5 |
| For Re. 1, toffees sold = |  |
6 x | 5 |  |
= 5. |
| 6 |
Video Explanation: https://youtu.be/7wKrnZ0LKA8
Discussion:
211 comments Page 3 of 22.
Vaibhav said:
3 years ago
1 rs ----> 6 toffe.
20 % profit i.e 5:6.
so 5------> 5x6= 30.
6------> 6x6 = 36.
The profit from 30 to 36 is of 6.
So, the ans is 6.
20 % profit i.e 5:6.
so 5------> 5x6= 30.
6------> 6x6 = 36.
The profit from 30 to 36 is of 6.
So, the ans is 6.
(3)
Nisha said:
3 years ago
Logically solving,
1 Rs=6 toffees.
20% = 20/100 =1/5.
Let the no.of toffees be Y.
Y*(1/5) = 6,
Y = 30,
Given 1 Rs = 6 Toffee.
So, 30 Toffee = 30/6 =Rs 5.
1 Rs=6 toffees.
20% = 20/100 =1/5.
Let the no.of toffees be Y.
Y*(1/5) = 6,
Y = 30,
Given 1 Rs = 6 Toffee.
So, 30 Toffee = 30/6 =Rs 5.
(8)
Shukla ji said:
4 years ago
@All.
Why all of you finding selling price of 6 toffees?
In this question, it tells that the cp of 6 toffee is 1. Then what was the need for that? Please explain me clearly.
Why all of you finding selling price of 6 toffees?
In this question, it tells that the cp of 6 toffee is 1. Then what was the need for that? Please explain me clearly.
(2)
Aparna Dileep said:
4 years ago
CP of 1 toffee = 1/6 Profit % = 20 Profit% = SP- 1/6 / 1/6 * 100.
[Profit % = (SP- CP/CP ) * 100 ] Which gives SP = 1/5 Therefore 5 toffees are sold for Re 1 for getting 20% profit.
[Profit % = (SP- CP/CP ) * 100 ] Which gives SP = 1/5 Therefore 5 toffees are sold for Re 1 for getting 20% profit.
(2)
Vishal said:
4 years ago
Thank you everyone for explaining.
Aritra Charkaborty said:
4 years ago
The cost price of 6 toffee = Rs 1.
Selling price of 6 toffee = (gain + 100) * cost price / 100 = (20 + 100) * 1 / 100 = 120/100 = 6/5.
In 6/5 Rs he can sell 6 toffee,
In 1 Rs he can sell = 6 * 5/6 = 5 toffee.
Selling price of 6 toffee = (gain + 100) * cost price / 100 = (20 + 100) * 1 / 100 = 120/100 = 6/5.
In 6/5 Rs he can sell 6 toffee,
In 1 Rs he can sell = 6 * 5/6 = 5 toffee.
Vishnu prakash said:
4 years ago
100 paisa = 6 toffee -----> 1
120 paisa = X toffee -----> 2.
So the equation 1&2 equal.
Then, 100 * 6 = 120 * X.
X = 600/120.
X = 5.
120 paisa = X toffee -----> 2.
So the equation 1&2 equal.
Then, 100 * 6 = 120 * X.
X = 600/120.
X = 5.
(1)
Madhavi said:
4 years ago
From the question;
C.P = 1Re/6.
Always assume C.P=100%.
Now Profit =20%.
S.P=C.P+ Profit=120%.
100%------>1Re/6T.
120%------>1Re/xT.
If we do cross multiplication we will get x=5.
C.P = 1Re/6.
Always assume C.P=100%.
Now Profit =20%.
S.P=C.P+ Profit=120%.
100%------>1Re/6T.
120%------>1Re/xT.
If we do cross multiplication we will get x=5.
(1)
Geethika said:
4 years ago
Yes, correct @Naveen.
Thank you.
Thank you.
Naveen said:
4 years ago
It's a logical thing;
6 toffees =rs. 1
The seller needs 20 percent of the profit
So, each candy has 20percent therefore 6 * 20 = 120,
Then remove one of the 20percent as a gain.
Therefore, 6-1 =5.
6 toffees =rs. 1
The seller needs 20 percent of the profit
So, each candy has 20percent therefore 6 * 20 = 120,
Then remove one of the 20percent as a gain.
Therefore, 6-1 =5.
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