Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion

Can anyone solve the same model in case if lose percentage is given example: 20% loss if sell at some percentage and how many should he sell to gain 20%.

Great solution @Chetan.

Guys who have a problem to understand 120% they can refer this answer.

First of all, we are not thinking about no of chocolate.

C.P =1rs (price for 6 chocolate).
Gain = 20%.
S.P =? (let x).

Gain=[ (S.P - C. P) /C.P] * 100.

20 = {(x - 1) /1] * 100.

So, x = 6/5 Rs (surely it'll be selling price of 6 chocolate).

6 toffee = 1rs -> 1 toffee = 1/6 rs.
x toffee = 1 rs -> 1 toffee = 1/x rs.

P = s.p - c.p.

=> 1/x - 1/6,
=>(6 - x)/6x.

This is the profit on 1/6 rs. But here mentioned in the question about "how many for a rupee).

So we multiply this profit value by 6 to make 1/6 rs -> 1 rs.....
=> (6 - x) * 6/6x = (6 - x)/x.
P% = (P/c.p) * 100.
P% = 20.
20 = ((6 - x)/x) * 100,
x = (6-x) * 5,
x = 30 - 5x,
6x = 30,
x = 5.

Yes, even I am a bit confused how come 6/5 became 5/6 * 6 ?

CP of 6 toffees = Re 1.
Profit % = 20%.

As we know profit % = (profit/Cp) * 100.
20 = profit/1 * 100.

Profit = Re 1/5.

SP for 6 toffees = Profit + Cp.

= (1/5) + 5.
= 6/5.

So SP of 6 toffees = Re 6/5.

For Re 6/5 = 6 toffees.
Re 1= 6 * 5/6 toffees.
Re 1 = 5 toffees.

100 paise/6 = 16.666
Now 1/5(20%) of 16.66 = 3.333 as he needs 20% profit.

So, add 16.66 + 3.44 = 20.
Now he must sell 100/5 i.e 5 for Rs 1.

Lemons are bought at the rate of 3 for rupees 4. At what rate must they be sold to gain 20%?

6 tofees - Rs. 1.
C.p of 1 tofee - Rs1/6.
Profit = 20%.
C.p/100 = S.p/120.

1/(6 * 100) = S.p/120.
S.p = 5.

Note: Assuming c.p as 100 and profit is 20 i.e s.p = 120.

For re 1 is 20% so for 6 it is 120.