Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Profit and Loss - General Questions (Q.No. 10)
10.
Some articles were bought at 6 articles for Rs. 5 and sold at 5 articles for Rs. 6. Gain percent is:
Answer: Option
Explanation:
Suppose, number of articles bought = L.C.M. of 6 and 5 = 30.
| C.P. of 30 articles = Rs. |  |
5 | x 30 |  |
= Rs. 25. |
| 6 |
| S.P. of 30 articles = Rs. | |
6 | x 30 | |
= Rs. 36. |
| 5 |
 Gain % = |
|
11 | x 100 | % = 44%. |
| 25 |
Discussion:
117 comments Page 10 of 12.
Altab said:
1 decade ago
Can we solve this by unitary method,the ans is 50%
a man bought some fruits at 16 for rs 24 and sold them at the rate of 8 for rs 18. Whats the profit %...?
a man bought some fruits at 16 for rs 24 and sold them at the rate of 8 for rs 18. Whats the profit %...?
Samiksha said:
1 decade ago
We can simply apply the formula ie,
((sp-cp)*100 /cp)%
ie, ((6/5-5/6)*100 /(5/6))% = 44%
((sp-cp)*100 /cp)%
ie, ((6/5-5/6)*100 /(5/6))% = 44%
Varun said:
1 decade ago
C.P= 6articles:5;.
S.P= 5articles:6;.
C.P= 6*5/6:5*5/6;.
S.P= 5:6.
C.P=5:25/6.
S.P=5:6.
Profit=S.P- C.P;
=6-25/6;.
Profit=11/6;.
Profit%=profit/C.P*100;.
44%.
S.P= 5articles:6;.
C.P= 6*5/6:5*5/6;.
S.P= 5:6.
C.P=5:25/6.
S.P=5:6.
Profit=S.P- C.P;
=6-25/6;.
Profit=11/6;.
Profit%=profit/C.P*100;.
44%.
A.JAIN said:
1 decade ago
6 article in 5 Rs
1.........in 5/6Rs
5 article in 6 Rs
1.........in 6/5Rs
so solve this we get
((6/5)-(5/6))/(5/6)
solve this we get 11/25
this is our profet n toget profit in percentge multiply by 100 we get 44%
:)
1.........in 5/6Rs
5 article in 6 Rs
1.........in 6/5Rs
so solve this we get
((6/5)-(5/6))/(5/6)
solve this we get 11/25
this is our profet n toget profit in percentge multiply by 100 we get 44%
:)
Malli said:
1 decade ago
Why should we take LCM according to other problems cp is 5
and sp is 6 sp-cp =1
and sp is 6 sp-cp =1
Hari said:
1 decade ago
Can any one please explain me the full problem.
Because I am struck in the first step itself.
Because I am struck in the first step itself.
Vrutti said:
1 decade ago
@SREE
Here,i use the formula C.p=((100/100+Gain%)*s.p)
Now,C.P=(100/115)*4600
Hence,C.P = 4000
Here,i use the formula C.p=((100/100+Gain%)*s.p)
Now,C.P=(100/115)*4600
Hence,C.P = 4000
Vasuroshan said:
1 decade ago
@srees query.....
sp=4600
gain%=15
we have formulae that
gain%=gain*100/cp
=(sp-cp)*100/cp
=(4600-x)*100/x
gain%=15 then put the value for gain%
15=((4600-x)*100)/x
by solving we get (4600*20)/23=4000
so cost price is===4000
sp=4600
gain%=15
we have formulae that
gain%=gain*100/cp
=(sp-cp)*100/cp
=(4600-x)*100/x
gain%=15 then put the value for gain%
15=((4600-x)*100)/x
by solving we get (4600*20)/23=4000
so cost price is===4000
111 said:
1 decade ago
Thanks Ahmad.
Nj. said:
1 decade ago
Answer to Sree's query;
Selling Price= Rs.4600
Profit%= 15%
Therefore, C.P.= (100/(100+ Profit %))*S.P.
= (100/115)*4600
= Rs.4000
Selling Price= Rs.4600
Profit%= 15%
Therefore, C.P.= (100/(100+ Profit %))*S.P.
= (100/115)*4600
= Rs.4000
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