Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Profit and Loss - General Questions (Q.No. 6)
6.
The percentage profit earned by selling an article for Rs. 1920 is equal to the percentage loss incurred by selling the same article for Rs. 1280. At what price should the article be sold to make 25% profit?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
Let C.P. be Rs. x.
| Then, | 1920 - x | x 100 = | x - 1280 | x 100 |
| x | x |
1920 - x = x - 1280
2x = 3200
x = 1600
Required S.P. = 125% of Rs. 1600 = Rs. |
![]() |
125 | x 1600 | ![]() |
= Rs 2000. |
| 100 |
Video Explanation: https://youtu.be/0tTd5TwCspY
Discussion:
96 comments Page 3 of 10.
Arisom Saha said:
12 months ago
Amazing explanation. Thanks all.
(1)
Kavi said:
2 decades ago
@kumar::
In the first case, by selling d article we get profit.so,the formula for gain=s.p-c.p
here we consider c.p as 'x'(cos its not gvn in quest)
therefore gain=1920-x
gain%=gain*100/(c.p)
so we get, gain%=(1920-x)*100/(x)
In the second case, by selling the product we get loss. so,the formula for loss= c.p-s.p
as we know, c.p=x(assumption)
s.p=1280
loss=x-1280
we need to find loss% here.. the formula is
loss%=loss*100/(c.p)
so we get, loss%=(x-1280)*100/(x)
as both the articles are same products we are equating both.
(1920-x)*100/(x)=(x-1280)*100/(x)
1920 - x = x - 1280
2x = 3200
x = 1600
hope you understood..! happy day!!
In the first case, by selling d article we get profit.so,the formula for gain=s.p-c.p
here we consider c.p as 'x'(cos its not gvn in quest)
therefore gain=1920-x
gain%=gain*100/(c.p)
so we get, gain%=(1920-x)*100/(x)
In the second case, by selling the product we get loss. so,the formula for loss= c.p-s.p
as we know, c.p=x(assumption)
s.p=1280
loss=x-1280
we need to find loss% here.. the formula is
loss%=loss*100/(c.p)
so we get, loss%=(x-1280)*100/(x)
as both the articles are same products we are equating both.
(1920-x)*100/(x)=(x-1280)*100/(x)
1920 - x = x - 1280
2x = 3200
x = 1600
hope you understood..! happy day!!
(1)
Dinesh said:
10 years ago
Why should we add 1600?
Kalyan said:
9 years ago
Thank you @Kavi.
Meeti said:
9 years ago
Thank you @Aamir.
Shubham said:
9 years ago
The loss is incurred soo [1920+1280]/2 =1600,
Then 1600 * 0.25 = 400,
1600+400 = 2000.
Then 1600 * 0.25 = 400,
1600+400 = 2000.
Amit Rai said:
9 years ago
No, how do you solve question, please. Explain with the answer.
Prajakta said:
9 years ago
Thanks @Aamir.
Sameer sopori said:
9 years ago
(1920+1280)/2 = 1600,
(1600/100) * 25% = 400,
1600+400 = 2000.
(1600/100) * 25% = 400,
1600+400 = 2000.
Manoj said:
9 years ago
Loss percentage means (loss/s.p)*100 but in solution you took (loss/c.p)*100 how come?
Please explain.
Please explain.
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Required S.P. = 125% of Rs. 1600 = Rs.
