Aptitude - Pipes and Cistern - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Pipes and Cistern - General Questions (Q.No. 3)
3.
A pump can fill a tank with water in 2 hours. Because of a leak, it took 2
hours to fill the tank. The leak can drain all the water of the tank in:
hours to fill the tank. The leak can drain all the water of the tank in:Answer: Option
Explanation:
| Work done by the leak in 1 hour = |  |
1 | - | 3 |  |
= | 1 | . |
| 2 | 7 | 14 |
Leak will empty the tank in 14 hrs.
Discussion:
90 comments Page 5 of 9.
Jothigonzi said:
5 years ago
@Deepi.
Nice explanation and easier to understand. Thanks.
Nice explanation and easier to understand. Thanks.
Reddy said:
5 years ago
How 3/7 with leakage? Explain, please.
SUDHARSHAN NAIDU said:
5 years ago
The efficiency of a pipe in 1 hour is 1/2 = 0.5lit/h.
The efficiency of a pipe with leakage 1/2.33 = 0.429,
The difference between 0.5 - 0.429 is 0.07.
The efficiency of a leak is 0.07lits/ hour.
So, check with an option in how many hours the 1-litre tank empty we get the answer.
The efficiency of a pipe with leakage 1/2.33 = 0.429,
The difference between 0.5 - 0.429 is 0.07.
The efficiency of a leak is 0.07lits/ hour.
So, check with an option in how many hours the 1-litre tank empty we get the answer.
Dhivyanisan said:
4 years ago
Time is taken by pump without leak = 2hrs.
Its discharge capacity says a= 1/2.
Time is taken by a pump with leak = 2 (1/3)hrs or 7/3 hrs.
It's discharge capacity say b= 1/(7/3) = 3/7.
So discharge capacity of the leak is a-b = 1/14.
Time taken by the leak to empty tank = 1/(1/14) = 14 hrs.
Its discharge capacity says a= 1/2.
Time is taken by a pump with leak = 2 (1/3)hrs or 7/3 hrs.
It's discharge capacity say b= 1/(7/3) = 3/7.
So discharge capacity of the leak is a-b = 1/14.
Time taken by the leak to empty tank = 1/(1/14) = 14 hrs.
Messi said:
4 years ago
Thanks for explaining @Suresh.
Ashu said:
1 decade ago
PGCR great logic. What type of logic you used here?
Please explain.
Please explain.
MGH said:
1 decade ago
@Mohanpriya.
Why have we done the calculation till 140 mins?
Why have we done the calculation till 140 mins?
Govindarajan said:
1 decade ago
20 mins extra for 2 hour i.e. 120 mins.
120 mins is first tank.
140 mins is second tank.
120/x = 140/20.
140/20*120 = 840 mins.
1 hour = 60 mins.
14 hours = 14 hours.
120 mins is first tank.
140 mins is second tank.
120/x = 140/20.
140/20*120 = 840 mins.
1 hour = 60 mins.
14 hours = 14 hours.
Mohanapriya said:
1 decade ago
2 hrs compose 120 mins.
But due to leak it takes 120+20 = 140 mins.
1st 2hr - 20 goes of [the amount has to be filled in 20 mins].
4nd hr - 40 mins.
6th hr - 60 mins.
8th hr - 80 mins.
10th hr - 100 mins.
12th hr - 120 mins.
14th hr - 140 mins.
And so it takes 14 hours to empty a full tank.
But due to leak it takes 120+20 = 140 mins.
1st 2hr - 20 goes of [the amount has to be filled in 20 mins].
4nd hr - 40 mins.
6th hr - 60 mins.
8th hr - 80 mins.
10th hr - 100 mins.
12th hr - 120 mins.
14th hr - 140 mins.
And so it takes 14 hours to empty a full tank.
Abhilash said:
1 decade ago
Actually tank could have filled in 2 hr.
Part will be 1/2.
Let the time taken by the leakage is y.
Therefore, part is 1/y.
3/7 = (1/2-1/y) here 3/7 is the total time taken to fill the tank (in parts).
1/y = ((7-6))/14.
y = 14.
Part will be 1/2.
Let the time taken by the leakage is y.
Therefore, part is 1/y.
3/7 = (1/2-1/y) here 3/7 is the total time taken to fill the tank (in parts).
1/y = ((7-6))/14.
y = 14.
Post your comments here:
Quick links
Quantitative Aptitude
Verbal (English)
Reasoning
Programming
Interview
Placement Papers