Aptitude - Calendar - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Calendar - General Questions (Q.No. 2)
2.
What was the day of the week on 28th May, 2006?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
28 May, 2006 = (2005 years + Period from 1.1.2006 to 28.5.2006)
Odd days in 1600 years = 0
Odd days in 400 years = 0
5 years = (4 ordinary years + 1 leap year) = (4 x 1 + 1 x 2) 
6 odd days
Jan. Feb. March April May (31 + 28 + 31 + 30 + 28 ) = 148 days
148 days = (21 weeks + 1 day) 1 odd day.
Total number of odd days = (0 + 0 + 6 + 1) = 7 0 odd day.
Given day is Sunday.
Discussion:
214 comments Page 6 of 22.
Mehul Jain said:
5 years ago
For all those who have confusion in this:
We calculate the years from 0 till 2005 so we split 2000 into 400 and 1600 and its odd day is 0, now left from 2000 to 2005 (5 yrs) = 4 ordinary years and 1 leap year = 4*1 + 2*1 = 6 the remainings.
I hope you all get it.
We calculate the years from 0 till 2005 so we split 2000 into 400 and 1600 and its odd day is 0, now left from 2000 to 2005 (5 yrs) = 4 ordinary years and 1 leap year = 4*1 + 2*1 = 6 the remainings.
I hope you all get it.
(6)
Jagath said:
9 years ago
MONTH CODE.
J F M A M J J A S O N D
1 4 4 0 2 5 0 3 6 1 4 6
YEAR CODE = 2006 - 6.
Sun = 1, Mon = 2, T = 3, W = 4, Thurs = 5, Fri = 6, Sat = 7 or 0.
28/5/2006.
D + M + Y + Leap year + Cc.
28 + 2 + 6 + 1 + 6 = 43.
43/7 = Q = 6, Re = 1.
J F M A M J J A S O N D
1 4 4 0 2 5 0 3 6 1 4 6
YEAR CODE = 2006 - 6.
Sun = 1, Mon = 2, T = 3, W = 4, Thurs = 5, Fri = 6, Sat = 7 or 0.
28/5/2006.
D + M + Y + Leap year + Cc.
28 + 2 + 6 + 1 + 6 = 43.
43/7 = Q = 6, Re = 1.
PRITHVI said:
3 years ago
28TH MAY 2006.
=>1600+400+5 YEARS+[JAN TO APRIL]+28 DAYS [IN GIVEN QUESTION]
=>0+0+[1 LEAP YEAR+ 4 ORDINARY YEAR]+[3+0+2+3]+28.
=>0+[1*2+4*1]+8+28,
=>6+8+28,
=>42 WHICH IS DIVIDED BY 7.
THEN 6 WEEKS + 0 ODD DAYS.
0 = SUNDAY.
=>1600+400+5 YEARS+[JAN TO APRIL]+28 DAYS [IN GIVEN QUESTION]
=>0+0+[1 LEAP YEAR+ 4 ORDINARY YEAR]+[3+0+2+3]+28.
=>0+[1*2+4*1]+8+28,
=>6+8+28,
=>42 WHICH IS DIVIDED BY 7.
THEN 6 WEEKS + 0 ODD DAYS.
0 = SUNDAY.
(26)
Kasinath @Hyd said:
1 decade ago
From 2006,
2000 is a Factor 0f 400 hence it is a leap year and has 0 odd days.
Remaining 6 years has 5 ordinary and 1 leap year i.e.,(4th year).
=> 5*1 + 1*2 + 28(from MAY) = 35 days.
35/7 = 5 weeks + 0 odd days.
0th odd day = Sunday.
2000 is a Factor 0f 400 hence it is a leap year and has 0 odd days.
Remaining 6 years has 5 ordinary and 1 leap year i.e.,(4th year).
=> 5*1 + 1*2 + 28(from MAY) = 35 days.
35/7 = 5 weeks + 0 odd days.
0th odd day = Sunday.
Susmita said:
6 years ago
Since to know what is the day of 28 th may.
2000 years+ 5year+ may 28.
100 year = 5odd days.
2000 year= 5 * 20 = 100days + 5 days(400,800,1200,1600,2000).
105days = 15weeks 0 odd days,
May 28 = 1 odd days.
1+6 = 7 days = 1week 0 odd days.
2000 years+ 5year+ may 28.
100 year = 5odd days.
2000 year= 5 * 20 = 100days + 5 days(400,800,1200,1600,2000).
105days = 15weeks 0 odd days,
May 28 = 1 odd days.
1+6 = 7 days = 1week 0 odd days.
Justin said:
1 decade ago
@Harish:
2000, 2004, 2008 etc are leap year...2000/4 completely divisible...
These are having 366 days = 2 odd day..
Why because 366/7 = 52.1211 so 52 week = 364 days + 2(odd) extra days.
In-case of non leap year 365 days = 1 odd day.
2000, 2004, 2008 etc are leap year...2000/4 completely divisible...
These are having 366 days = 2 odd day..
Why because 366/7 = 52.1211 so 52 week = 364 days + 2(odd) extra days.
In-case of non leap year 365 days = 1 odd day.
Suresh said:
8 years ago
Can I do this way?
28+2+1+1=32.
32÷7=remains is 4.
So the answer is,
Because in 2000-2100.
Week of days.,
2000,jan1 is sat.
So,
Fri. Sat. Sun. Mon Tue Wed Thrus
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 0
Ans is Monday.
28+2+1+1=32.
32÷7=remains is 4.
So the answer is,
Because in 2000-2100.
Week of days.,
2000,jan1 is sat.
So,
Fri. Sat. Sun. Mon Tue Wed Thrus
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 0
Ans is Monday.
Priya said:
8 years ago
Simple as it is,
Calculate the odd days from 2000 to 2006.
2004 is a leap year has 2 odd days.
(00+01+02+03+04+05+06) years = 1+1+1+1+2+1 odd days respectively since 2006 has it february.
= 7 % (mod) 7 = 0.
Which is sunday.
Calculate the odd days from 2000 to 2006.
2004 is a leap year has 2 odd days.
(00+01+02+03+04+05+06) years = 1+1+1+1+2+1 odd days respectively since 2006 has it february.
= 7 % (mod) 7 = 0.
Which is sunday.
Kumar D said:
9 years ago
@Kannaiah.
Please explain how did you make the month code?
MONTH CODE.
J F M A M J J A S O N D
1 4 4 0 2 5 0 3 6 1 4 6
Why Jan is 1 and Feb is 4 and March is 4? Please explain the method of assuming the value.
Please explain how did you make the month code?
MONTH CODE.
J F M A M J J A S O N D
1 4 4 0 2 5 0 3 6 1 4 6
Why Jan is 1 and Feb is 4 and March is 4? Please explain the method of assuming the value.
Meenu said:
1 decade ago
Hi All,
Deena s solution is correct. Its 106 not 16... But try to substitute 106 instead of 16.. We are getting the same answer. I tried with some other questions also,its working.. Good Solution Deena.... Thanks :-)
Deena s solution is correct. Its 106 not 16... But try to substitute 106 instead of 16.. We are getting the same answer. I tried with some other questions also,its working.. Good Solution Deena.... Thanks :-)
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