Aptitude - Calendar - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Calendar - General Questions (Q.No. 3)
3.
What was the day of the week on 17th June, 1998?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
17th June, 1998 = (1997 years + Period from 1.1.1998 to 17.6.1998)
Odd days in 1600 years = 0
Odd days in 300 years = (5 x 3) 
1
97 years has 24 leap years + 73 ordinary years.
Number of odd days in 97 years ( 24 x 2 + 73) = 121 = 2 odd days.
Jan. Feb. March April May June (31 + 28 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 17) = 168 days
168 days = 24 weeks = 0 odd day.
Total number of odd days = (0 + 1 + 2 + 0) = 3.
Given day is Wednesday.
Discussion:
165 comments Page 5 of 17.
HDX said:
1 decade ago
Here is complete solution, the year is 1998
16+3=19
See from 0 A.D
1600yr+300yr =1900yr
We are calling the odd days from the 0 A.D. So 1600 yr has 0 odd days
But the remaing 300 year has 15 odd days and rest you can do.
16+3=19
See from 0 A.D
1600yr+300yr =1900yr
We are calling the odd days from the 0 A.D. So 1600 yr has 0 odd days
But the remaing 300 year has 15 odd days and rest you can do.
Chitaranjan said:
1 decade ago
1998=1600+300+98
1600-->0 odd days
300-->1 odd day
98 years= 24 leap yr +73 normal year
= 24*2+73*1=121 odd =121/7=2odd
Jan to June 17 =168 days =168/7= 0 odds
Total odd days=0+1+2+0=3, so its Wednesday.
1600-->0 odd days
300-->1 odd day
98 years= 24 leap yr +73 normal year
= 24*2+73*1=121 odd =121/7=2odd
Jan to June 17 =168 days =168/7= 0 odds
Total odd days=0+1+2+0=3, so its Wednesday.
Akshay said:
9 years ago
@Deepika and @Asif, Just listen.
100/4 = 25, but the first year is not divisible by 4. (note that)
For example from 2001 to 2100 ....... 2001 is not leap year. That's why 25 - 1 = 24 leap years in 100 years.
100/4 = 25, but the first year is not divisible by 4. (note that)
For example from 2001 to 2100 ....... 2001 is not leap year. That's why 25 - 1 = 24 leap years in 100 years.
Nitin Gupta said:
8 years ago
Anyone explain why 144025036146 is the codes for month explain how 1 arrives for January for ordinary year and 4 for feb again 4 for March I know 31/7=3 is code for feb leap year but why 144 for jan feb march.
Naresh said:
1 decade ago
Hello Everyone.
The simple answer is:
1996+2 = 1996(leap year)+1 ordinary year+Jan to june 17th.
= 2 odd days +1 odd day+168 days.
= 2+1+0 odd days.
= 3 odd days.
i.e Wednesday.
The simple answer is:
1996+2 = 1996(leap year)+1 ordinary year+Jan to june 17th.
= 2 odd days +1 odd day+168 days.
= 2+1+0 odd days.
= 3 odd days.
i.e Wednesday.
Savanth said:
7 years ago
If you want to find number of odd days in 100 years, then 100/4=25.(Only. Quotient) Now,( 100 +25)/7=6(remainder).
So, there are 6 odd days in 100 no of Years.
So, there are 6 odd days in 100 no of Years.
Kavya said:
1 decade ago
Is there any shortcut? Its very complicated, confusing, odd days, why there is a need to take 1600, 400, it will take more time in competitive exams. Please tell easy way to solve if have.
Madhukumar M S said:
9 years ago
Today is 29th March 2016, Tuesday. But if I calculate as your procedure, I'm getting Wednesday as the answer. Because 2016 is a leap year, should count February as 29 days. Please clarify.
John said:
1 decade ago
@Mickey.
Now divide 144 by 7.
We'll get quotient = 20 and remainder = 4.
So 4th day is Wednesday.
Here remainder is wrong. We will get it as 5.
How you get remainder as 4?
Now divide 144 by 7.
We'll get quotient = 20 and remainder = 4.
So 4th day is Wednesday.
Here remainder is wrong. We will get it as 5.
How you get remainder as 4?
Akshakumar said:
6 years ago
1600 + 300 + 97 + (J to March)+17.
0 + 1 + {24(leap year)+73(ordinary y)}+(3+0+3+2+3) + 17.
1 + (24 * 2 + 73 * 1) + 17.
150/7.
21 week + 4 odd days.
Then the Ans is Thursday.
0 + 1 + {24(leap year)+73(ordinary y)}+(3+0+3+2+3) + 17.
1 + (24 * 2 + 73 * 1) + 17.
150/7.
21 week + 4 odd days.
Then the Ans is Thursday.
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