Verbal Ability - Spotting Errors - Discussion

Discussion Forum : Spotting Errors - Section 1 (Q.No. 33)
Directions to Solve

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).


33.

(solve as per the direction given above)

The long-awaited moment at last came,
and we set out for the station
as merry a band of children as I have ever seen before or since.
No error.
Answer: Option
Explanation:
as merry a band of children as I have ever seen since or before
Discussion:
38 comments Page 1 of 4.

Rahul said:   1 week ago
Correct Answer is Option D – No error.

Sentence given:
*“The long-awaited moment at last came, and we set out for the station as merry a band of children as I have ever seen before or since.”*

Explanation:
- The phrase *“as merry a band of children as I have ever seen before or since” is grammatically correct.
- The structure *“as + adjective + a + noun + as …”* is a standard idiomatic form in English.
Example: as fine a day as I have ever known.
- The placement of before or since* is also acceptable—it emphasises that at no time before or after had the speaker seen such a merry group.

Tense:
- came → simple past tense (the moment arrived).
- set out → simple past tense (the action of leaving).
- have ever seen→ present perfect tense (used to connect past experience with the present).

So the sentence is already correct, and the answer is Option D: No error.

Duk mama said:   4 years ago
Please explain the answer for me in detail.

Gagan said:   5 years ago
Here "The long-awaited moment came at last" is the correct form.
(10)

Shantanu said:   5 years ago
@Vishal Choudhary.

You answer is absolutely correct.

This is because "ever since" and "never before" are phrases themselves and hence, can't be altered. "Ever since" is used to express something after the occurrence of an event and "never before" is used to express something before the occurrence of an event. So, before is appended after "ever since" and since is appended after "never before" and not in between the phrases.
(4)

Deibor said:   7 years ago
Why not?

As merry 'as' a band of children I have ever seen before or since.
(1)

Kiyara said:   7 years ago
Why a long awaited, why not awaited?

Only isn't superfluous.

Mohd naeem khan said:   8 years ago
Its never before or since, so the answer given is incorrect.

Ottio said:   8 years ago
>> "Since or before" Its a phrase. We use it like this.

No, the set phrase is "before or since".

Suburaaj said:   8 years ago
You are right, thanks @Vertika.

Tanmoy said:   8 years ago
Can anyone explain the answer with a logic?


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