Mechanical Engineering - Hydraulics and Fluid Mechanics - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Hydraulics and Fluid Mechanics - Section 7 (Q.No. 3)
                   
                                       
                                3.
According to Darcy's formula, the loss of head due to friction in the pipe is (where f = Darcy's coefficient, l = Length of pipe, v = Velocity of liquid in pipe, and d = Diameter of pipe)
 
                                    Discussion:
36 comments Page 1 of 4.
                
                        Virupaksha said: 
                         
                        8 years ago
                
                Answer [A] is correct. Because in the question ' f ' is mentioned as Darcy's coefficient/ Darcy's friction factor which is named after the Frenchmen Henry Darcy. It should not be confused with the friction coefficient/ Fanning friction factor, named after American engineer John Fanning. If ' f ' is given as Fanning friction factor then answer D is correct.
                
                        Kajal Patil said: 
                         
                        5 years ago
                
                Answer D is correct.
Because they clearly mentioned f is Darcy's coefficient.
If they metion f' as a friction factor, then only Answer A will be correct.
Because.
f' = 4f.
                Because they clearly mentioned f is Darcy's coefficient.
If they metion f' as a friction factor, then only Answer A will be correct.
Because.
f' = 4f.
                        Praveen tiwari said: 
                         
                        6 years ago
                
                A is right because friction factor is 4times greater than the coefficient of friction and here in question coefficient of friction given so A is right.
                
                        Vin said: 
                         
                        6 years ago
                
                Both A and D are correct as f in both the cases known as Darcy coefficient or coefficient of friction.
And both the formula introduced by Darcy only.
                And both the formula introduced by Darcy only.
                        Sourabh said: 
                         
                        7 years ago
                
                I think option D is the correct answer because where the diameter is considered. While area consider then it will be option A.
                
                        Arun B Kumar said: 
                         
                        1 decade ago
                
                Answer D is correct if the "f" denotes friction coefficient. And Answer: A is correct if "f" denotes the friction factor.
                
                        MARGHUB said: 
                         
                        8 years ago
                
                I think answer [D] will be correct.
According to R.S. Khurmi clearly written f=Darcyes coefficient.
                According to R.S. Khurmi clearly written f=Darcyes coefficient.
                        Siraj (NMIT) said: 
                         
                        5 years ago
                
                The correct one is D. 4flv^2/2gd 
According to Darcys or Weisbach equation on major energy loss.
                According to Darcys or Weisbach equation on major energy loss.
                        Moin said: 
                         
                        4 years ago
                
                And D is Right, Because 4f- Darcy Coefficient if f- Friction Factor.
Then answer A right.
                Then answer A right.
                        Salahuddin said: 
                         
                        7 years ago
                
                A is the correct one.
Darcy friction factor is four times fanning friction factor.
                Darcy friction factor is four times fanning friction factor.
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