Mechanical Engineering - Hydraulics and Fluid Mechanics - Discussion


According to Darcy's formula, the loss of head due to friction in the pipe is (where f = Darcy's coefficient, l = Length of pipe, v = Velocity of liquid in pipe, and d = Diameter of pipe)


Answer: Option A


No answer description available for this question.

Arun B Kumar said: (Nov 26, 2013)  
Answer D is correct if the "f" denotes friction coefficient. And Answer: A is correct if "f" denotes the friction factor.

Reuben said: (Apr 9, 2017)  
I think the answer C is correct.

Virupaksha said: (Feb 5, 2018)  
Answer [A] is correct. Because in the question ' f ' is mentioned as Darcy's coefficient/ Darcy's friction factor which is named after the Frenchmen Henry Darcy. It should not be confused with the friction coefficient/ Fanning friction factor, named after American engineer John Fanning. If ' f ' is given as Fanning friction factor then answer D is correct.

Marghub said: (Feb 12, 2018)  
I think answer [D] will be correct.

According to R.S. Khurmi clearly written f=Darcyes coefficient.

Mahi said: (Feb 26, 2018)  
Answer D is correct.

Farabi said: (Mar 24, 2018)  
D is the correct option.

Vinod Koul said: (Apr 4, 2018)  
D is the correct answer.

Ref: R S Khurmi.

Rasmik said: (Apr 8, 2018)  
Ans. D is correct.

Ref: R S Khurmi.

Bittu said: (Apr 17, 2018)  
No, D is the correct option.

Sagar Jadav said: (May 5, 2018)  
D is the correct option.

Gopal Dey said: (May 22, 2018)  
According to me, D is the correct answer.

Hardeep said: (Aug 18, 2018)  
A is correct. Here f is friction factor.

Sourabh said: (Aug 23, 2018)  
I think option D is the correct answer because where the diameter is considered. While area consider then it will be option A.

Srikanth said: (Sep 13, 2018)  
D is the correct answer.

Shivaprasad said: (Sep 19, 2018)  
The correct answer is option D.

Ref : R S Kurmi.

Shivaprasad said: (Sep 19, 2018)  
The Correct answer is D.

Sameer said: (Feb 17, 2019)  
D is the correct option.

Salahuddin said: (Mar 31, 2019)  
A is the correct one.

Darcy friction factor is four times fanning friction factor.

Dharmendrasinh said: (Mar 31, 2019)  
I think D is the correct answer.

Praveen Tiwari said: (Jul 20, 2019)  
A is right because friction factor is 4times greater than the coefficient of friction and here in question coefficient of friction given so A is right.

Kishore Raj said: (Aug 11, 2019)  
Darcy friction factor = flv^2/2gd.
Fanning factor = 4flv^2/2gd.

Bhanu said: (Sep 5, 2019)  
4flv^2/2gd is the correct answer.

Vin said: (Oct 1, 2019)  
Both A and D are correct as f in both the cases known as Darcy coefficient or coefficient of friction.

And both the formula introduced by Darcy only.

Siraj (Nmit) said: (Jun 30, 2020)  
The correct one is D. 4flv^2/2gd

According to Darcys or Weisbach equation on major energy loss.

Asif said: (Jul 7, 2020)  
D is the correct answer. I too agree.

Kajal Patil said: (Aug 14, 2020)  
Answer D is correct.

Because they clearly mentioned f is Darcy's coefficient.

If they metion f' as a friction factor, then only Answer A will be correct.

f' = 4f.

Sqasi said: (Sep 9, 2020)  
f' to be 4f only if the flow is turbulent
For laminar flow f'=f.

Yash Agarwal said: (Sep 24, 2020)  
The right Answer is D.

Sahil Chavda said: (Sep 25, 2020)  
The right Answer is D.

Vinay Bel said: (Oct 21, 2020)  
The right Answer is D.

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