Mechanical Engineering - Engineering Mechanics - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Engineering Mechanics - Section 2 (Q.No. 10)
10.
The maximum efficiency of a lifting machine is
Discussion:
16 comments Page 1 of 2.
Nikhil D Anand said:
9 years ago
Law of machine gives the relation between effort applied (P) and load lifted (W). By conducting experiments, effort-load graph can be plotted in a graph as effort(P) in y-axis and load(W) in y-axis. A straight inclined line is obtained and the slope this line is a constant called 'm'. m=tan θ\', where θ\' is the angle of line with respect to x-axis. (In some texts 'm' is also referred as the coefficient of friction.) The line touches a point on y-axis. This point is taken as 'C'. From the equation of the line we get,
P = mW+C
When efficiency is maximum (Ideal machines) slope passes through the origin.
That means C=0 or P= mW.
Then we have mechanical advantage, M.A = Velocity Ratio, V.R.
M.A = W/P=W/(mW) =1/m.
Mechanical Efficiency = (1/m)/V.R.
That is Mechanical Efficiency =1/(mV.R).
P = mW+C
When efficiency is maximum (Ideal machines) slope passes through the origin.
That means C=0 or P= mW.
Then we have mechanical advantage, M.A = Velocity Ratio, V.R.
M.A = W/P=W/(mW) =1/m.
Mechanical Efficiency = (1/m)/V.R.
That is Mechanical Efficiency =1/(mV.R).
(3)
Krishna said:
1 decade ago
Efficieny = MA/VR.
If MA is Max then Eff is Max.
MA is Max when MA = 1/m we get MA = 1/m from law of machine P = mW+c.
Since MA = W/p and substituting P from law of machine we get MA max = 1/m.
So Eff = 1/m*VR.
If MA is Max then Eff is Max.
MA is Max when MA = 1/m we get MA = 1/m from law of machine P = mW+c.
Since MA = W/p and substituting P from law of machine we get MA max = 1/m.
So Eff = 1/m*VR.
YOGENDRA SINGH said:
1 decade ago
MA = W/P,
From law of machine.
P = mW+C.
MA = 1/(m+C/W).
So in limiting case when W tends to infinity, then C/W = 0 and max mechanical advantage equals to 1/m.
So efficiency = MA/VR.
Max efficiency = 1/m*VR.
From law of machine.
P = mW+C.
MA = 1/(m+C/W).
So in limiting case when W tends to infinity, then C/W = 0 and max mechanical advantage equals to 1/m.
So efficiency = MA/VR.
Max efficiency = 1/m*VR.
Harsh said:
6 years ago
As max efficiency.
= mechanical advantage/velocity ratio.
Here mechanical advantage will be maximum = 1/m.
= mechanical advantage/velocity ratio.
Here mechanical advantage will be maximum = 1/m.
Pawan setia said:
7 years ago
The formula of maximum efficiency in % is this :
Max efficiency =100 * max M.A./V.R.
Max efficiency =100 * max M.A./V.R.
Akhil said:
6 years ago
If the law machine is p = mw+c maximum then MA is?
Can anyone answer this?
Can anyone answer this?
Robo said:
1 decade ago
If someone knows the explanation for this question please explain here.
Sanjay said:
1 decade ago
M means Mechanical advance and VR means Velocity Ratio.
Bunny said:
5 years ago
P=me+c.
How to find the c value? Please explain.
How to find the c value? Please explain.
Guruprasad k said:
6 months ago
Here, What is the meaning of "m"? Please explain.
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