Mechanical Engineering - Engineering Mechanics - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Engineering Mechanics - Section 2 (Q.No. 10)
10.
The maximum efficiency of a lifting machine is
Discussion:
16 comments Page 1 of 2.
Nikhil D Anand said:
9 years ago
Law of machine gives the relation between effort applied (P) and load lifted (W). By conducting experiments, effort-load graph can be plotted in a graph as effort(P) in y-axis and load(W) in y-axis. A straight inclined line is obtained and the slope this line is a constant called 'm'. m=tan θ\', where θ\' is the angle of line with respect to x-axis. (In some texts 'm' is also referred as the coefficient of friction.) The line touches a point on y-axis. This point is taken as 'C'. From the equation of the line we get,
P = mW+C
When efficiency is maximum (Ideal machines) slope passes through the origin.
That means C=0 or P= mW.
Then we have mechanical advantage, M.A = Velocity Ratio, V.R.
M.A = W/P=W/(mW) =1/m.
Mechanical Efficiency = (1/m)/V.R.
That is Mechanical Efficiency =1/(mV.R).
P = mW+C
When efficiency is maximum (Ideal machines) slope passes through the origin.
That means C=0 or P= mW.
Then we have mechanical advantage, M.A = Velocity Ratio, V.R.
M.A = W/P=W/(mW) =1/m.
Mechanical Efficiency = (1/m)/V.R.
That is Mechanical Efficiency =1/(mV.R).
(3)
Arijit said:
7 years ago
m is a constant here.
(1)
Robo said:
1 decade ago
If someone knows the explanation for this question please explain here.
Naveen K said:
1 decade ago
Please mention what these M, V, R indicates?
Sanjay said:
1 decade ago
M means Mechanical advance and VR means Velocity Ratio.
Krishna said:
1 decade ago
Efficieny = MA/VR.
If MA is Max then Eff is Max.
MA is Max when MA = 1/m we get MA = 1/m from law of machine P = mW+c.
Since MA = W/p and substituting P from law of machine we get MA max = 1/m.
So Eff = 1/m*VR.
If MA is Max then Eff is Max.
MA is Max when MA = 1/m we get MA = 1/m from law of machine P = mW+c.
Since MA = W/p and substituting P from law of machine we get MA max = 1/m.
So Eff = 1/m*VR.
YOGENDRA SINGH said:
1 decade ago
MA = W/P,
From law of machine.
P = mW+C.
MA = 1/(m+C/W).
So in limiting case when W tends to infinity, then C/W = 0 and max mechanical advantage equals to 1/m.
So efficiency = MA/VR.
Max efficiency = 1/m*VR.
From law of machine.
P = mW+C.
MA = 1/(m+C/W).
So in limiting case when W tends to infinity, then C/W = 0 and max mechanical advantage equals to 1/m.
So efficiency = MA/VR.
Max efficiency = 1/m*VR.
Harsh said:
9 years ago
What is m here?
Puneet said:
9 years ago
What is 'm' here?
Anurag singh said:
7 years ago
What is m here? someone please explain.
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