Logical Reasoning - Statement and Assumption - Discussion

Will somebody tell me how 2 is implicit ?

I could not understand how 2 is implicit. The explanation given is not justifying the answer. I hold that only assumption 1 is implicit.

I don't see how any are implicit. A successful man may also be rich. That doesn't lead to the conclusion that not having money causes failure. Similarly a successful man may be happy. Unhappiness does not cause failure. Indeed, who's to say that the ability to judge oneself comes only with success? Nor is the fact that the successful man is able to judge himself mutually exclusive of the ability to judge others. Finally, being able to judge oneself correctly does not stop one from making wrong judgments about other things.

Perhaps the question should be, "make wild assumptions based off this statement".

In conclusion, this test is terrible. Someone really needs to consider whether it should be kept up if people are using it as practice for real tests which might have some significant bearing on their future.

I think 1 and 2 are implicit. Did not understand the logic how 2 is implicit?

Option II can never be an assumption.

An somebody please verify the correct answer to this question from an expert?

Inability to judge correctly causes failure. - there is no statement judge here indicates successful man judging himself.

To judge others is of no use to a successful man. - why? successful man has the ability to judge himself correctly but why there is no use to judge others?

The successful man cannot make a wrong judgement. - cannot make wrong judgement about himself but can make wrong judgment regarding some other topic (e. G. Buy too many apples in a grocery. ).

For me none are implicit. These answers are weird sometimes.

I think none is implicit. It will be option A.

I think None is implicit.

I think only 1 and 3 are right as nothing is mentioned about judging others. Plus, a successful man should have the ability to judge who would be helpful and who would not at some point of the time.

I think that only 1 is implicit because.

Inability to judge can sometimes lead to failures. Be it the case of judging your own self or someone other.

Judging others is 100% useful. It can help one in many fields, like business and all. If you can judge others correctly, it is very useful.

And third, that no man on the planet is perfect, so even if he is a successful man, he can make wrong judgments. Yes, the probability might be less, but not zero. Seeing decades-old comments, no serious change in answer or clarification. Please anyone clarify it?