Logical Reasoning - Logical Deduction - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Logical Deduction - Section 1 (Q.No. 13)
Directions to Solve
In each question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusion and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer:
- (A) If only conclusion I follows
- (B) If only conclusion II follows
- (C) If either I or II follows
- (D) If neither I nor II follows and
- (E) If both I and II follow.
13.
Statements: No gentleman is poor. All gentlemen are rich.
Conclusions:
- No poor man is rich.
- No rich man is poor.
Answer: Option
Explanation:
The first premise is an E-type proposition, So, the middle term 'gentleman' forming the subject is distributed. The second premise is an A-type proposition. So, the middle term 'gentlemen' forming the subject is distributed. Since the middle term is distributed twice, the conclusion cannot be universal. Since one premise is negative, the conclusion must be negative. Thus, it follows that 'Some rich men are not poor'. Thus, neither I nor II follows.
Discussion:
22 comments Page 2 of 3.
Harshita Naik said:
9 years ago
No gentleman is poor-->no poor is gentleman.
All gentleman are rich--> gentleman=rich.
==>no poor is rich.
Is conclusion 1 is true?
All gentleman are rich--> gentleman=rich.
==>no poor is rich.
Is conclusion 1 is true?
Sejal said:
8 years ago
Both are true.
As gentle mean the middle term is distributed in a second case. But the gentleman is not distributed in the first case. As in E type, predicate is distributed and not the subject.
No poor man is rich holds. As the middle term is not there and also as in premises one E type of statement is there so in conclusion also E type of statement should come.
No rich man is poor also holds as it is the converse of 1st.
As gentle mean the middle term is distributed in a second case. But the gentleman is not distributed in the first case. As in E type, predicate is distributed and not the subject.
No poor man is rich holds. As the middle term is not there and also as in premises one E type of statement is there so in conclusion also E type of statement should come.
No rich man is poor also holds as it is the converse of 1st.
Charmi said:
8 years ago
Thanks for clearing my doubt.
Anonymous said:
8 years ago
It should be [C]. Either I or II follows.
Because for No poor man is rich we can neglect the statement by drawing a ven diag was poor intersect rich.
No rich man is poor. For this statement, if we check the first ven and say it follows as there is an intersection between poor and rich, so it can only be either of this.
Correct me if I'm wrong.
Because for No poor man is rich we can neglect the statement by drawing a ven diag was poor intersect rich.
No rich man is poor. For this statement, if we check the first ven and say it follows as there is an intersection between poor and rich, so it can only be either of this.
Correct me if I'm wrong.
KIran said:
7 years ago
Can someone explain with a venn diagram? please.
Lathasree said:
7 years ago
Yes, Please someone explain with Venn diagram.
Dipshikha said:
6 years ago
Why not option E?
Gajju said:
6 years ago
It is Option E.
Absolutely Right answer.
Cause of there is no relation between poor vs Rich and Gentleman.
Absolutely Right answer.
Cause of there is no relation between poor vs Rich and Gentleman.
Keerthi said:
5 years ago
(rich (gentle) ) (poor).
So, Option E is correct.
So, Option E is correct.
(2)
Nidhi said:
5 years ago
I agree with Keerthi, the answer should be E.
(1)
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