Electronics and Communication Engineering - Analog Electronics - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Analog Electronics - Section 1 (Q.No. 16)
16.
The output V0 in figure is
Answer: Option
Explanation:
Input to non-inverting op-amp is -10 x 10-6 x 103 = -10 mV.
Therefore output = 
= -100 mV.
Discussion:
10 comments Page 1 of 1.
Jyothi R said:
9 years ago
Let first op amp output is v01;
By using KCL ((0 - v01)/(1k)) = (10 micro amps);
v01 = -10mV;
v01 is the input to the second op amp that to non inverting.
If we give non-inverting input, here output will be (1 + (R2/R1)v01;
So, v0 = (1 + (90/10))(-10mV) = -100mV.
By using KCL ((0 - v01)/(1k)) = (10 micro amps);
v01 = -10mV;
v01 is the input to the second op amp that to non inverting.
If we give non-inverting input, here output will be (1 + (R2/R1)v01;
So, v0 = (1 + (90/10))(-10mV) = -100mV.
Ritesh maurya said:
1 decade ago
Second stage is nothing it just out put of non inverting opamp.
Vout = (1+rf/r1)*Vinput.
Vout = (1+90/10)*-10.
Vout = (1+rf/r1)*Vinput.
Vout = (1+90/10)*-10.
Manjappa hosakeri said:
1 decade ago
First inverting amplifier is op-amp is -10 x 10-6 x 103 = -10 mV.
Roopak said:
1 decade ago
vo = vin(1+R1/R2) where vin = -10mv, R1 = 90, R2 = 10.
Bindu said:
1 decade ago
What is the formulae used for to get output voltage?
Mukesh said:
1 decade ago
Please tell 2nd step how -100mv will come?
Vishakadatta said:
8 years ago
@Mukund.
There is milli(m), so its 100mV.
There is milli(m), so its 100mV.
Vim said:
1 decade ago
Anyone can please explain the solution?
Mianl said:
1 decade ago
What about first inverting amplifier?
Mukund said:
8 years ago
I think the answer is option A.
(2)
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