Electronic Devices - DC Biasing-FETs - Discussion
Discussion Forum : DC Biasing-FETs - General Questions (Q.No. 6)
6.
For what value of R2 is VGSQ equal to 1 V?
10 M
100 M
110 M
220 M
Discussion:
12 comments Page 1 of 2.
Haya said:
1 decade ago
I think its 110 mg not 100. How you solve?
Shubham said:
9 years ago
Yeah, it's 110.
Adrian said:
7 years ago
I too agree, it is110Mohm.
Blapo said:
7 years ago
According to me, it is 110 Mohm, using the Shockley's equation.
Jexi said:
7 years ago
It should be 110. I too agree.
Mark said:
6 years ago
How? Explain it.
Exynos said:
6 years ago
Vg = 9v,
Therefore, Vg= 18(R2/110M+R2),
R2 should be 110.
Therefore, Vg= 18(R2/110M+R2),
R2 should be 110.
Hapith said:
6 years ago
Why is Vg equal to 9v?
Cassey said:
6 years ago
@Hapith.
Vgs = Vg - IdRs.
While Id = Idss(1-(Vgs/Vp))^2,
Given that Vgs = 1 V, you can substitute the given data in the 1st equation.
So,
1 = Vg - 8mA(1-(1/-3))^2 *(750),
Vg = 9 V.
Vgs = Vg - IdRs.
While Id = Idss(1-(Vgs/Vp))^2,
Given that Vgs = 1 V, you can substitute the given data in the 1st equation.
So,
1 = Vg - 8mA(1-(1/-3))^2 *(750),
Vg = 9 V.
Laine said:
5 years ago
I also agree with 110M ohm. VGSQ is only 0.57 at 100M ohm R2.
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