Electronic Devices - DC Biasing-FETs - Discussion
Discussion Forum : DC Biasing-FETs - General Questions (Q.No. 6)
6.
For what value of R2 is VGSQ equal to 1 V?
Discussion:
12 comments Page 1 of 2.
Anonymous said:
1 year ago
According to me, the right answer is 100M ohms.
Marki said:
3 years ago
It should be 110M but I think there is no 110M resistor available in the market the closest one available is 100M ohms.
Laine said:
5 years ago
I also agree with 110M ohm. VGSQ is only 0.57 at 100M ohm R2.
Cassey said:
6 years ago
@Hapith.
Vgs = Vg - IdRs.
While Id = Idss(1-(Vgs/Vp))^2,
Given that Vgs = 1 V, you can substitute the given data in the 1st equation.
So,
1 = Vg - 8mA(1-(1/-3))^2 *(750),
Vg = 9 V.
Vgs = Vg - IdRs.
While Id = Idss(1-(Vgs/Vp))^2,
Given that Vgs = 1 V, you can substitute the given data in the 1st equation.
So,
1 = Vg - 8mA(1-(1/-3))^2 *(750),
Vg = 9 V.
Hapith said:
6 years ago
Why is Vg equal to 9v?
Exynos said:
6 years ago
Vg = 9v,
Therefore, Vg= 18(R2/110M+R2),
R2 should be 110.
Therefore, Vg= 18(R2/110M+R2),
R2 should be 110.
Mark said:
6 years ago
How? Explain it.
Jexi said:
7 years ago
It should be 110. I too agree.
Blapo said:
7 years ago
According to me, it is 110 Mohm, using the Shockley's equation.
Adrian said:
7 years ago
I too agree, it is110Mohm.
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