Data Interpretation - Bar Charts - Discussion

@Charan why did you divide by 20?

Just look at the question it was asked to find what percentage is Pakistan's income through agriculture over India's income through Services ?

By looking at the diagram we can infer,
Pakistan's income through agriculture = 40.
India's income through Services = 20.

Just look at the word 'over' means 'additional to' or 'percentage increase' of pak's income in agriculture with that of india's income in services.
Therefore we have to subtract india's income from pak's income.

So it becomes:
x= (40-20)/20*100=100%.

That's it. Just try to understand guys :).

Hey they have not asked for percentage change for which we need to minus it. Its just asking the percentage of pakistan over India so we don't have to minus I guess. I'm confused can someone please give the right answer.

Thanks Sundar.

Nice appreciation.

@All

You should understand the line "Pakistan's income through agriculture OVER India's income".

Just look the word 'OVER' ... (it means higher than)

Let us compare Income ratio:

India (by Services) = 20%
Pakistan (by Agriculture) = 40%

If Pakistan = 40, then India = 20
If Pakistan = 100 (40 x 2.5) then India = 50 (20 x 2.5)
If Pakistan = 200 then India = 100

Reversed
If INDIA = 100% then PAKISTAN = 200%
Here Pakistan have 100% over income than India.

One more example:

Assume, India = 100 and Pakistan = 120,
Then Pakistan have 20% higher/over income than India.

The correct answer is 200%. We should divide 40 by 20, and not (40-20) by 20.

The question does not ask for the difference.

Why we divide this number (40-20) by 20?

I don't understand this. Can you please explain.