Data Interpretation - Bar Charts - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Bar Charts - Bar Chart 19 (Q.No. 5)
Directions to Solve
The following bar chart shows the composition of the GDP two countries (India and Pakistan).
Composition of GDP of Two Countries
5.
If the total GDP is the same for both the countries, then what percentage is Pakistan's income through agriculture over India's income through Services ?
Answer: Option
Explanation:
Since the GDP is same, the answer will be got by (40 - 20)/20 = 100%.
Discussion:
19 comments Page 1 of 2.
MOHD SHARIQ said:
4 years ago
200% should be the right answer.
(4)
Ashwini said:
7 years ago
Percentage increase formula:
(a-b)/b * 100%.
(40-20)/20 * 100% = 100%.
(a-b)/b * 100%.
(40-20)/20 * 100% = 100%.
(3)
Tiger Ongchu said:
4 years ago
The right answer should be 200 not 100.
The word 'over' means just to do with ratio or to place the given datas in numerator and denominator.
The word 'over' means just to do with ratio or to place the given datas in numerator and denominator.
(2)
Charan said:
1 decade ago
Just look at the question it was asked to find what percentage is Pakistan's income through agriculture over India's income through Services ?
By looking at the diagram we can infer,
Pakistan's income through agriculture = 40.
India's income through Services = 20.
Just look at the word 'over' means 'additional to' or 'percentage increase' of pak's income in agriculture with that of india's income in services.
Therefore we have to subtract india's income from pak's income.
So it becomes:
x= (40-20)/20*100=100%.
That's it. Just try to understand guys :).
By looking at the diagram we can infer,
Pakistan's income through agriculture = 40.
India's income through Services = 20.
Just look at the word 'over' means 'additional to' or 'percentage increase' of pak's income in agriculture with that of india's income in services.
Therefore we have to subtract india's income from pak's income.
So it becomes:
x= (40-20)/20*100=100%.
That's it. Just try to understand guys :).
(2)
Pema said:
5 years ago
I think it is 200%.
(2)
Sriya said:
5 years ago
@Sundar @Charan.
X over Y means X divided by Y.
So, the right answer must be 200.
X over Y means X divided by Y.
So, the right answer must be 200.
(2)
Noine said:
1 year ago
Yes, 200% should be the right answer.
(1)
Pranav said:
1 decade ago
The correct answer is 200%. We should divide 40 by 20, and not (40-20) by 20.
The question does not ask for the difference.
The question does not ask for the difference.
(1)
Sundar said:
1 decade ago
@All
You should understand the line "Pakistan's income through agriculture OVER India's income".
Just look the word 'OVER' ... (it means higher than)
Let us compare Income ratio:
India (by Services) = 20%
Pakistan (by Agriculture) = 40%
If Pakistan = 40, then India = 20
If Pakistan = 100 (40 x 2.5) then India = 50 (20 x 2.5)
If Pakistan = 200 then India = 100
Reversed
If INDIA = 100% then PAKISTAN = 200%
Here Pakistan have 100% over income than India.
One more example:
Assume, India = 100 and Pakistan = 120,
Then Pakistan have 20% higher/over income than India.
You should understand the line "Pakistan's income through agriculture OVER India's income".
Just look the word 'OVER' ... (it means higher than)
Let us compare Income ratio:
India (by Services) = 20%
Pakistan (by Agriculture) = 40%
If Pakistan = 40, then India = 20
If Pakistan = 100 (40 x 2.5) then India = 50 (20 x 2.5)
If Pakistan = 200 then India = 100
Reversed
If INDIA = 100% then PAKISTAN = 200%
Here Pakistan have 100% over income than India.
One more example:
Assume, India = 100 and Pakistan = 120,
Then Pakistan have 20% higher/over income than India.
(1)
MOHD SHARIQ said:
4 years ago
200% should be the right answer.
(1)
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