Aptitude - True Discount - Discussion
Discussion Forum : True Discount - General Questions (Q.No. 10)
10.
The present worth of Rs. 2310 due 2
years hence, the rate of interest being 15% per annum, is:

Answer: Option
Explanation:
P.W. = Rs. | ![]() |
100 x 2310 | ![]() |
= Rs. 1680. | ||
|
Discussion:
21 comments Page 1 of 3.
Rajee said:
1 decade ago
Here, they have given the total amount (i.e. interest+principal) after 2 and 1/2 years = 5/2.
Simple interest = (principal*num of years*rate of interest)/100.
Total amount = simple interest & principal.
2310 = (pnr/100)+p.
2310 = p[(nr/100)+1].
231000 = p[((5/2)*15)+100].
(Since,multiply 100 on both sides).
Therefore, p = (231000*2)/[(5*15)+200].
Present worth p = 1680 rupees.
Simple interest = (principal*num of years*rate of interest)/100.
Total amount = simple interest & principal.
2310 = (pnr/100)+p.
2310 = p[(nr/100)+1].
231000 = p[((5/2)*15)+100].
(Since,multiply 100 on both sides).
Therefore, p = (231000*2)/[(5*15)+200].
Present worth p = 1680 rupees.
Bharath said:
7 years ago
Instead of by hearting formulas, we can go through concept and techniques that is the total amount after 2 1/2 years is 2310.
so in this amount total worth and interest are there so,
total amount = principal amount or present worth + interest.
let us assume that present worth is P.
2310= P + ((15/100)*(30/12)*P).
P=18480/11,
P=1680.
so in this amount total worth and interest are there so,
total amount = principal amount or present worth + interest.
let us assume that present worth is P.
2310= P + ((15/100)*(30/12)*P).
P=18480/11,
P=1680.
(1)
Suchita said:
1 decade ago
Here amount = 2310.
Rate = 15%.
Time = 2 years and 6 months == 24+6 = 30 means 30/12 = 5/2.
Now by using formula of P.W,
P.W. = Amount*100/100+(r*t).
= 2310*100/100+(15* 5/2).
By taking LCM at denominator, we get.
= 2310*100/200+75/2.
= 2310*100*2/275.
= 1680.
Rate = 15%.
Time = 2 years and 6 months == 24+6 = 30 means 30/12 = 5/2.
Now by using formula of P.W,
P.W. = Amount*100/100+(r*t).
= 2310*100/100+(15* 5/2).
By taking LCM at denominator, we get.
= 2310*100/200+75/2.
= 2310*100*2/275.
= 1680.
(1)
B.CHANDRASEKAR said:
1 decade ago
i = (pnr/100);
Total amount = Principle amount+Interest;
Total amount = 2310;
So, 2310 = ((pnr/100) +p);
2310 = p((nr/100)+1)).
= p(((5*15)/(2*100))+1).
So, p = (2310*200)/275.
p = 1680.
Total amount = Principle amount+Interest;
Total amount = 2310;
So, 2310 = ((pnr/100) +p);
2310 = p((nr/100)+1)).
= p(((5*15)/(2*100))+1).
So, p = (2310*200)/275.
p = 1680.
(2)
Ashish said:
9 years ago
Here present worth is amount.
Amount = principal + simple interest
Principal = (100 * amount)/(100 + rate of interest * time period).
Principal = (100 * 2310)/(100 + 2.5 * 15) = 1680.
Amount = principal + simple interest
Principal = (100 * amount)/(100 + rate of interest * time period).
Principal = (100 * 2310)/(100 + 2.5 * 15) = 1680.
Www said:
1 decade ago
GIVEN AMOUNT=2310/-
TIME=2 AND 1/2 MEANS 24+6 months=30/12 years=5/2 years
R=15%
Thus using the formula of P.W
P.W=(amount*100)/(100+[R*T])
TIME=2 AND 1/2 MEANS 24+6 months=30/12 years=5/2 years
R=15%
Thus using the formula of P.W
P.W=(amount*100)/(100+[R*T])
Requeal said:
5 years ago
Simple:
They have taken 6 tables:
i.e 6*5 - 30.
6*2 - 12.
or you can calculate with the original value.
i.e 100+15*30÷12 = 137.5.
They have taken 6 tables:
i.e 6*5 - 30.
6*2 - 12.
or you can calculate with the original value.
i.e 100+15*30÷12 = 137.5.
Prashant said:
7 years ago
Let P.W=X.
Then S.I=2310-X.
So S.I formula.
(X * 15 * 5)/(2 * 100)=2310-X.
We get X=1680.
Then S.I=2310-X.
So S.I formula.
(X * 15 * 5)/(2 * 100)=2310-X.
We get X=1680.
(1)
Mozthi said:
1 decade ago
How did you get the 5/2? how it possible to solve the problem. Please clear my dought?
Kishan said:
1 decade ago
What equations are apply the above problem to get solution. Please solve my dout.
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