Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion

Discussion Forum : Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No. 10)
10.
A machine P can print one lakh books in 8 hours, machine Q can print the same number of books in 10 hours while machine R can print them in 12 hours. All the machines are started at 9 A.M. while machine P is closed at 11 A.M. and the remaining two machines complete work. Approximately at what time will the work (to print one lakh books) be finished ?
11:30 A.M.
12 noon
12:30 P.M.
1:00 P.M.
Answer: Option
Explanation:

(P + Q + R)'s 1 hour's work = ( 1 + 1 + 1 ) = 37 .
8 10 12 120

Work done by P, Q and R in 2 hours = ( 37 x 2 ) = 37 .
120 60

Remaining work = ( 1 - 37 ) = 23 .
60 60

(Q + R)'s 1 hour's work = ( 1 + 1 ) = 11 .
10 12 60

Now, 11 work is done by Q and R in 1 hour.
60

So, 23 work will be done by Q and R in ( 60 x 23 ) = 23 hours = 2 hours.
60 11 60 11

So, the work will be finished approximately 2 hours after 11 A.M., i.e., around 1 P.M.

Discussion:
95 comments Page 6 of 10.

Kuldeep kumar said:   9 years ago
P do work in one hour = 100000/8 = 12500print.

Similarly;
q=10000print in one hour
R=8333.3print in one hour

So P and Q and R together work
continous = 2 * (12500+10000+8333.3)=61666.6 ------- (i) Print Page In 11am.

After 11 am left
Left print 100000-61666.6 = 38333.4.
And now P is closed and Q or R.

The contuinous work so next TWO HOUR PRINT pages By P And Q
= 2 * (10000+8333.3) =36666.6-----(ii)
Now All print page eq(i) + eq(ii) = 98333.2

So, approximately 11am + 2am = 1am approx ANS.

BUVANA said:   9 years ago
Nice explanation @Sukanya.

Kranthi said:   8 years ago
P can work 2 hours 2/8 = 1/4.
We don't know how much Q and R work so let be think as = x.
1/4 + x/10 + x/12 =1.
LCM 60.
15+6x+5x=60,
15+11x=60,
11x=45,
X=4.~.

Work started at 9 so add 4 hours = 9+4 = 13 (1P.M).

Devi said:   8 years ago
How to calculate 2 hours from 23/11 hours? Please help me, I'm in confusion.

Swapna Vallala said:   8 years ago
The difference between every machine is two hours, so 2hr + 11hr = 13 hrs, ie 1:00 clock. This is an easy method for understanding.

Swapnil said:   8 years ago
Can someone tell me why 1 is subtracted in third step after getting two hours work.

1-37/60 ? Why?

Swedha said:   8 years ago
P=8hours..which implies 2hours=P/4 ie q fourth(0.25) of the work is done by p in 2 hours. Q=10 hours.


Therefore Q's 2 hours work is 0.2. Similarly R's 2 hours work is 0.16
Therefore 2 hours work is 0.25+0.2+0.16=0.616
Remaining work to be done=1-0.616=0.3833
Q+R 1hr work= 1/10+1/12=11/60=0.1833
Next 1 hr work=0.1833
0.1833+0.1833=0.3666.
11+2 hours= 1 pm.

Barun kumar mahalik said:   8 years ago
8+3=11,
10+3=13,
12+3=15,
11+13+15=39/3=13,
13 is called 1pm.
(1)

Swapnil said:   7 years ago
@ALL.

See 37/120 is a work done of PQR in 1hr
Now p is close after 2 hrs it means PQR combine work for 2 hrs.
So work done by PQR in 2 hrs,
2* 37/120 = 37/60.

Remaining work 1-37/60 = 23/60,
23/60 work is done by only Q and R after closing of P,

Q and R 1 hr work ,
1/10 + 1/12 = 11/60.

So whole work completed by Q and R in 60/11 hr,
But in problem Q and R combine do only 23/60,
That's why 60/11 * 23/60= 23/11 = ~2 hr.

Whole work completed 11+ 2 =13= 1 pm.

Shree said:   7 years ago
I got it with the help of given explanation. Thanks all.


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