Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No. 2)
2.
A can lay railway track between two given stations in 16 days and B can do the same job in 12 days. With help of C, they did the job in 4 days only. Then, C alone can do the job in:
Answer: Option
Explanation:
| (A + B + C)'s 1 day's work = | 1 | , |
| 4 |
| A's 1 day's work = | 1 | , |
| 16 |
| B's 1 day's work = | 1 | . |
| 12 |
 C's 1 day's work = |
1 | - |  |
1 | + | 1 |  |
= | |
1 | - | 7 | |
= | 5 | . |
| 4 | 16 | 12 | 4 | 48 | 48 |
| So, C alone can do the work in | 48 | = 9 | 3 | days. |
| 5 | 5 |
Discussion:
224 comments Page 10 of 23.
Vaishnavi Deshpande said:
3 years ago
Why do not we consider work done by A+B in 4 days and then subtract it from 1 to get work done by C in 4 days? Please anyone explain me.
(2)
Shakti said:
1 decade ago
Let total work = 48.
Then A effi. = 3, b = 4 and find C effi. as (7+n)*4 = 48.
It comes 5.
Hence divide 48 by 5 and get your answer.
Then A effi. = 3, b = 4 and find C effi. as (7+n)*4 = 48.
It comes 5.
Hence divide 48 by 5 and get your answer.
Abi said:
1 decade ago
A can do work in 16 days.
Then, A's 1 day work = 1/16.
Meanwhile, C's 1 day work = 5/48 (our ans).
Then, C can do work in 48/5 days.
Then, A's 1 day work = 1/16.
Meanwhile, C's 1 day work = 5/48 (our ans).
Then, C can do work in 48/5 days.
Dushyant Verma said:
1 decade ago
In 4 days.
A --> 25%
B --> 33 %
C --> 100-25-33 = 42 %
42% work done in 4 days then,
100% ---------- (4/42)*100 = 9(3/5).
A --> 25%
B --> 33 %
C --> 100-25-33 = 42 %
42% work done in 4 days then,
100% ---------- (4/42)*100 = 9(3/5).
Teja said:
3 years ago
A = 16
B = 12.
A + B + C = 4.
16,12,4 LCM = 48.
then,16/48 = 3.
12/48 = 4.
4/48 = 12.
Then,C - (A + B) = 12-(3+4) = 5.
then 48/5.
B = 12.
A + B + C = 4.
16,12,4 LCM = 48.
then,16/48 = 3.
12/48 = 4.
4/48 = 12.
Then,C - (A + B) = 12-(3+4) = 5.
then 48/5.
(5)
Aditya said:
1 decade ago
'A' work in 16 days.
Working of 'A' in one day is 1/16.
Similarly working of 'C' in one day is 5/48.
So 'C' work finished.
Working of 'A' in one day is 1/16.
Similarly working of 'C' in one day is 5/48.
So 'C' work finished.
Amrut said:
1 decade ago
C s one day work is 5/48. But how you came to 48/5, I mean C finish job in 48/5 days. Is there any formula for this result?
Gokul said:
8 years ago
According to me,
a+b+c=4
a=16
b=12
c=?
C = a * b/b-c,
=16 * 12/16-12,
= 16 * 12/4,
=4 * 12 = 48.
Am I correct?
a+b+c=4
a=16
b=12
c=?
C = a * b/b-c,
=16 * 12/16-12,
= 16 * 12/4,
=4 * 12 = 48.
Am I correct?
Ishwar said:
5 years ago
Because time is inversely proportional to Rate and your calculated rate is 5/48 (this is C`s rate at which C working so).
(1)
Shruti said:
8 years ago
I didn't get still that how 5/48 came from 28/192, actually, I don't know the basics to solve maths so please explain.
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