Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion

Discussion Forum : Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No. 6)
6.
If 6 men and 8 boys can do a piece of work in 10 days while 26 men and 48 boys can do the same in 2 days, the time taken by 15 men and 20 boys in doing the same type of work will be:
4 days
5 days
6 days
7 days
Answer: Option
Explanation:

Let 1 man's 1 day's work = x and 1 boy's 1 day's work = y.

Then, 6x + 8y = 1 and 26x + 48y = 1 .
10 2

Solving these two equations, we get : x = 1 and y = 1 .
100 200

(15 men + 20 boy)'s 1 day's work = 15 + 20 = 1 .
100 200 4

15 men and 20 boys can do the work in 4 days.

Discussion:
202 comments Page 2 of 21.

Jabi Mir said:   1 decade ago
We have two equations; 6x + 8y = 1/10 & 26x + 48y = 1/2.

We can write them as' 60x + 80y = 1 ...(1) & 52x + 96y = 1 ...(2).

Since work is same, equation 1 = equation 2.

i.e, 60x+ 80y = 52x+ 96y => 60x-52x = 96y-80y => 8x = 16Y.

or x/y = 16/8 => x=2y, Now substitution value of x in = n(1).
60 x 2y + 80y =1 => 120y +80y = 1.
or, 200y = 1 or y = 1/200.

Similarly, Now we can calculate value of x by substituting value of Y in any equation above.

Naman Keshari said:   5 years ago
Hi everyone!.

In this question, the simplest way to solve it is:

6 men and 8 boys take 10 days.

Therefore, 6:8 = 10 which implies 3:4 = 10 (2 being the common factor in the ratio).
Similarly, 26:48 = 2 which implies 13:24 = 2 (2 being the common factor in the ratio).
We have to find 15:20 = how many days? right?

Now 15:20 = 3:4 (5 being the common factor here).
Now since 6:8 and 15:20 has the same ratio;
Therefore, (2/5) x 10 = 4 days.
(5)

Balaji pawar said:   7 years ago
According to question.

(6m+8B)*10=(26M+48B)*2.
We get ratio man to boy,
M:B=2:1,
Now to calculate total work.
Put this ratio to the above equation,
Let see how,
(6M+8B)*10 = (6*2+8*1)*10=200.
Total work =200.

15 Man And 20 boy can do work in how many day.
Put above ratio to this15 man to20 boy,
(15M+20B)=(15*2+20*1)=50,
Total work =200.
15m+20 b can do work in =200/50,
=4 day.

Qasim said:   1 decade ago
Hello to all I am confuse in x value.

6x+8y=1/10 ----- (i).
26x+48y=1/2 ------ (ii).

Multiply 1st equation into 6, then we get:

36x+48y=1/10*6.
26x+48y=1/2.

Change the sign of 2nd equation.

36x+48y=3/5.
-26x-48y=-1/2.

The result is:

10x=3/5-1/2.
10x=1/10.

Then,

x= 1/10/10= 10/1*10= 100/1=100.

Therefore x= 100.

Is it right please any one tell me.

And also tell me why in upward first solution there is x=1/100.

Manikanta said:   7 years ago
According to me,

6men + 8boys = 10 days = 60md + 80bd -----> 1 (md = men and days).

26men + 48boys =2 days = 52md + 96bd ----->2

So,
60md + 80bd = 52md + 96bd,
60md - 52md=96bd - 80bd,
8md = 16bd.

1md = 2bd reciprocal of this so we can get 2boys=1men or 1 men = 2boys.
So 15 men and 20 boys in doing the same type of work will be;
40/7.5 = 4.

Avya bhardwaj said:   5 months ago
The total work for the given no of days will be equivalent to LCM of both the given no of days i.e for 10 days & 2 days LCM will be 10.
So the efficiency of 6M + 8B = 1 unit/day.
now, if we divide it by 2 , then for 3M +4B efficiency will also become 1/2 unit/day.
So for 15M + 20B efficiency will become 5/2 unit /day.
So, total days taken by 15M + 20B for doing the same work = 10 /5/2 =(10*2)/5 = 4days.
(6)

DINESH G said:   9 years ago
06m + 08b = 1/10-------->eq 1.

26m + 48b = 1/2---------->eq 2.

15m + 20b = ?------------->eq 3.

Sol:.

From eq 1 & 2.

60m + 80b = 1.
52m + 96b = 1.

It is equals to 1. So,

60m + 80b = 52m + 96b,
8m = 16b,
M = 2b.

Now substitute in eq 3,
30b + 20b = x.
50b = x---------->eq 4.

Now in eq 1,
12b + 8b = 1/10.
20b = 1/10------->eq 5.

Now compare both eq 4 & 5,
50 * x = 20 * 10.

X = 4 days.

Varun bansal said:   1 decade ago
I can suggest a new method:

6 men + 8 boys = 10 days
=> 60 men + 80 boys = 1 day
=> 30 men + 40 boys = 2 days - eq.1.

But given that
26 men + 48 boys = 2 days - eq.2.

From one and two eqns.
4 men = 8 boys.
i.e. 1 man = 2 boys.
From eqn 1. 100 boys = 2 days.

50 boys = 4 days.
30 boys + 20 boys = 4 days.
15 men + 20 boys = 4 days.

Magic said:   4 weeks ago
First convert it to either boys or men's.
(6m+8b)×10=(26m+48B)×2.
8m = 16B,
m=2B.
One man equals 2 boys.

So, use this in any one of the equation, let's take:
= (6m+8B)×10.
= 6(2B)+8B ×10.
= 200B units.

So, use this trick in and find out the work done boys in the given undefined equation:
= 15m + 20B,
= 15(2B) + 20B,
= 50B.

Calculate total work/ work.
= 200B/50B.
= 4 days.
(7)

V nirmal kumar said:   1 decade ago
6 men and 8 boys are in the ratio 6:8=3:4.

15 men and 20 boys are also in the same ratio 15:20=3:4.

Common factor for the first combination is 2 and common factor for the second combination is 5.

So if it take 10 days for the first combination then.

5 : 2.

10 : ?

= 4.

As you can see the common factors are in the ratio of the number of days needed to finish the work.


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