Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion

Discussion Forum : Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No. 12)
12.
4 men and 6 women can complete a work in 8 days, while 3 men and 7 women can complete it in 10 days. In how many days will 10 women complete it?
35
40
45
50
Answer: Option
Explanation:

Let 1 man's 1 day's work = x and 1 woman's 1 day's work = y.

Then, 4x + 6y = 1 and 3x + 7y = 1 .
8 10

Solving the two equations, we get: x = 11 , y = 1
400 400

1 woman's 1 day's work = 1 .
400

10 women's 1 day's work = 1 x 10 = 1 .
400 40

Hence, 10 women will complete the work in 40 days.

Discussion:
106 comments Page 5 of 11.

Jak said:   1 decade ago
Hi I can't understand this problem.

Can we solve like this way.

4 man and 6 women = 8 days.

3 man and 7 women = 10 days.

So,

2 man and 8 women = 12 days.

1 man and 9 women = 14 days.

0 man and 10 women = 16 days.

Is it right way.

Ankur Tanwar said:   1 decade ago
Ok I didn't see all the example but I tried and found the following the easiest.

Men= x, Women= y.
So
(4x + 6y) will all the work in ? ans= 8 days (Given).

Then work done by (4x+6y) in 1 day = 1/8 (eq 1) simple, right ?).

Similarly we will get 3x+7y = 1/10... (eq 2).

Now if we can find out the amount of work done by 1 women (i.e - Y) then we can easily find out work done by 10 ?

2 eq

4x + 6 y = 1/8

3x + 7y = 1/10 Now think if we can eliminate X from the eq

Hmm.. Multiply eq 1 by 3 i.e 3* (4x + 6y = 1/8)

Multiply eq 2 by 4 i.e 4* (3x + 7y = 1/10)

We will get?

12x + 18y = 3/8.

12x + 28y = 4/10 or 12x + 28 y = 2/5 .

subtract them . X is gone :D

28y-18y = 2/5 - 3/8

=> 10y= 16-15/40

=> 10y= 1/40

=> y = 1/400 ( This is all we wanted ) .

1 women (i.e y ) can do 1/400 of work.

10 women will do in ? 10*1/400 = 1/40.

Actually 40 days! done.
(3)

Avinash Singh said:   1 decade ago
I have a best answer:
4M + 6W = 8 days.

32M + 48W = 1 day --- 1.
3M + 7W = 10 days.

30M + 70W = 1 day ----2.
From 1 and 2, we get.

2M = 22W.
1M = 11W.

and also 3M = 33W.

Subs in 3M + 7W = 10 days.
we get, 33W + 7W = 10 days.

40W = 10 days.

Then,
10W = 40 days.

Suma said:   1 decade ago
Hi, can anybody explain how comes 1/8-6/400 =11/100?

Mamatha said:   1 decade ago
6/400 = 3/200.

Take LCM of 1/8-3/200 = 440/4000 = 11/100.
Is it clear?

Abdul said:   1 decade ago
How can this problem be solved if the supporting statement isn't given, that is "3 men and 7 women complete work in 10 days. ".

What if the question is "4 men and 6 women can complete the work in 8 days then how many days it will take for 10 women to finish the work?".

Xxx said:   1 decade ago
LCM of 1/8-3/200 = 440/4000 = 11/100.

How can possible 8, 200 LCM is 4000. I am not understand please explain?

Narasingarao said:   1 decade ago
men | women = days.
4 | 6 = 8.
3 | 7 = 10.
| 10 = ?

Solution- by cross multiplication and subtraction.

6*10 = 60 ; 4*7 = 28.
7*8 = 56 ; 3*6 = 18.

60-56 = 4 * 28-18 = 10 = 4*10 = 40 days.

Deepak Patgar said:   1 decade ago
Abdul if the supportive statement is not given it can never be solved as we don't know man and woman work proportion.

Manu said:   1 decade ago
Please can you explain how to get x = 11/400 and y = 1/400.


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