Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion

Discussion Forum : Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No. 30)
30.
A and B together can do a piece of work in 30 days. A having worked for 16 days, B finishes the remaining work alone in 44 days. In how many days shall B finish the whole work alone?
30 days
40 days
60 days
70 days
Answer: Option
Explanation:

Let A's 1 day's work = x and B's 1 day's work = y.

Then, x + y = 1 and 16x + 44y = 1.
30

Solving these two equations, we get: x = 1 and y = 1
60 60

B's 1 day's work = 1 .
60

Hence, B alone shall finish the whole work in 60 days.

Discussion:
97 comments Page 8 of 10.

Harish said:   1 decade ago
I don't think we should bother about 30 days' combined work. That piece of problem is, I think, meant to confuse us. Because he wishes to know B's individual capacity of doing what is left out by A's individual work.

Whatever A leaves behind, B finishes it.

Hence it is as simple as 16+44 = 60 days.

Dhiraj said:   1 decade ago
Another way:

A + B = 60.
So A and B's together 1 day's work =1/60.

A's 1 day work = 1/16.
B's 1 day work = 1/44.

A works 16 days and leaves so int that A+B = 1/60, multiply A's work out of 60 days, Which gives number of work A has done.

Therefore 16/60=4/15 = A's work with B in 60 days.

Remaining work for 1 day = 1-4/15 = 11/15.

In those Remaining work has to Be done by B as he has to finish the work alone - 15/11*44 = 60 Days. This is Easy way.

Abhilash said:   1 decade ago
How to solve alternative working days problem in time and work?

Avi said:   1 decade ago
For completion of one work it took A, B for 30 days.

So let A's one day work is x & B's one day work is y.

From above we can write 1 work=30x+30y.

But in second case a worked for 16 days & B worked for 44days.

Therefore,

16x+44y=1 work.

By solving we can get y=1/60 work.

Shraddha said:   1 decade ago
A's 16 days work + B's 44 days work = 1
(A+B) 16 days work + B's 28 days work = 1
but (A+B) 1 days work= 1/30
hence, (A+B) 16 days work = 8/15
therefore,
8/15 + B's 28 days work = 1
B's 28 days work = 1- 8/15
= 7/15
B's 1 days work = 1/60

Shraddha said:   1 decade ago
Multiply x+y=1/30 by 16 and that gives 16x+16y=8/15

subtract 16x + 16y = 8/15
-
16x + 44y =1
----------------
28y = 7/15
hence, y=1/60
substitute y= 1/60 in x+y=1/30 and we get, x=1/60

Sushma said:   1 decade ago
Hi all

Can any one explain clearly above 1, that hw the answer would be x=1/60 & y=1/60............

I think we cant get it from abve eqns that 16x +44y=1
x+y=1/30

Ats said:   1 decade ago
Hi All,

Can somebody please explain me how solving the following equations.

1) x+y = 1/30.
2) 16x+44y = 1.

Result in x = 1/60 & why = 1/60 ?

Vino said:   1 decade ago
For eg:16x+44y=1:
A work is completed in 16days
For 16 days A's work is 16*x;
Remaining work=1-A's work...so
Remaining +A's work=1
Remaining work is done by 44 days=44*y
that's it.

Raj said:   1 decade ago
@vidya.
Given x and why worked for 30 days.
So, x and y's one days work is 1/30.


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