Aptitude - Time and Work - Discussion

Discussion Forum : Time and Work - General Questions (Q.No. 30)
30.
A and B together can do a piece of work in 30 days. A having worked for 16 days, B finishes the remaining work alone in 44 days. In how many days shall B finish the whole work alone?
30 days
40 days
60 days
70 days
Answer: Option
Explanation:

Let A's 1 day's work = x and B's 1 day's work = y.

Then, x + y = 1 and 16x + 44y = 1.
30

Solving these two equations, we get: x = 1 and y = 1
60 60

B's 1 day's work = 1 .
60

Hence, B alone shall finish the whole work in 60 days.

Discussion:
97 comments Page 7 of 10.

Vinayan said:   9 years ago
Total work is equal to the LCM of 30, 16 & 44. ie 2640.

B finished the work in 2640/ 44 = 60 days.

Priyanka said:   1 decade ago
@vidya :- we are taking 1/30 , becoz we are talking about work completed by x and y in one day .

Rutika patel said:   10 years ago
I can't understand how we can right 16x+44y = 1.

How you get 1? What is the meaning of 1?

Ram said:   1 decade ago
1/A + 1/B = 1/30 ------ 1.
16/A + 44/B = 1 ------- 2.

Solving these 2 equation:

B = 60.

Ugyen JIgme Chogyel said:   5 months ago
Then, In how many days shall B finish the whole work alone?

Anyone, please answer this.

Vidhya said:   1 decade ago
What is the need to write number of days as a ratio?

Why cant we take it as x+y=30 ?

Raj said:   1 decade ago
@vidya.
Given x and why worked for 30 days.
So, x and y's one days work is 1/30.

Sakshi said:   1 decade ago
I can't understand. Why we have used x? We did not do this in other question.

Guest said:   2 decades ago
Selvi: its wrong... because, we dont know a & b's one day work.

Ray said:   10 years ago
How can you get 1 in the equation: B = 1-16x? I don't understand.


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