Aptitude - Surds and Indices - Discussion
Discussion Forum : Surds and Indices - General Questions (Q.No. 7)
7.
The value of [(10)150 ÷ (10)146]
Answer: Option
Explanation:
| (10)150 ÷ (10)146 = | 10150 |
| 10146 |
= 10150 - 146
= 104
= 10000.
Discussion:
8 comments Page 1 of 1.
Priya A said:
1 year ago
@Devi.
Here is the answer for your question
The Same base and different powers are applicable for both multiplication and division and we do have formulas based on signs.
Formula :
Multiplication: a^m×a^n = a^m+n.
Division: a^m÷a^n = a^m-n.
Here is the answer for your question
The Same base and different powers are applicable for both multiplication and division and we do have formulas based on signs.
Formula :
Multiplication: a^m×a^n = a^m+n.
Division: a^m÷a^n = a^m-n.
BHAVYA said:
8 years ago
Here, we can write 10^150= 10^146 * 10^4.
Now, 10^146 will get canceled and the remaining will be 10^4, so the answer is 10000.
Now, 10^146 will get canceled and the remaining will be 10^4, so the answer is 10000.
(1)
Hagar said:
9 years ago
So basically 10^150 : 10^146.
You leave the 10 and subtract the 150 - 146 = 4.
So 10^4.
My question is shouldn't the answer be 100.000
Because
10 x 10 = 100,
100 x 10 = 1.000,
1.000 x 10 = 10.000,
10.000 x 10 = 100.000.
You leave the 10 and subtract the 150 - 146 = 4.
So 10^4.
My question is shouldn't the answer be 100.000
Because
10 x 10 = 100,
100 x 10 = 1.000,
1.000 x 10 = 10.000,
10.000 x 10 = 100.000.
Prisca said:
9 years ago
Because the operation sign is a division so we divide.
Ujala said:
9 years ago
Why we divide 10^150 to 10^146?
Madhu said:
10 years ago
How 10^156-10^140 = 10^4? Anybody tell me?
Vignesh said:
1 decade ago
(a)"m"n=a"m-n,thats way it happen
Devi said:
1 decade ago
I have one doudt in this question same base with diff power means mulitple only access. Now here given divide function how it is possible this ? tell me answer.
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