Aptitude - Stocks and Shares - Discussion

Hi @Anjali,

16*3 = 48+2 = 50 [mixed fraction].

= 50/3-64 = 1500-?

= 1500*64/50/3 = 1500*64*3/50.

= 288000/50 = 5760.

What happen to the percentage, I thought it would be 50/300? Please help me.

After I made research on this question, there is a mistake I found.

i.e., the question is stated with 16% and the answer has solved with 50/3%. Now up to you which one you will think is right.

When left fraction goes to right it reciprocate.

x/y = something.

Then 1 = something*y/x.

Just couldn't understand the question? Please explain.

He earn 50/3-------------Invest 64.

For earn 1---------------64/(50/3).

1500 earn---------------1500*64*3/50 = 5760 Ans.

16% stock at 64.

Means x% dividend on market value.

So 16% means 16 rupees for 100th of share.

Dividend = Annual profit of shares or x% stock of total face values.

Eg:

A person purchased 7200, 8% stock at 90. What is the face value, market value, dividend?

Sol: A person purchased 7200 worth of stock at 8 % dividend.

So 8% dividend means 8 rupees.

Face value of shares=total value of shares.

Fv = 7200.

Total market value = 90% of total face value.

90/100*7200 = 6480.

Dividend on all shares 8% on 7200.

8/100*7200 = 576.

Income 1500 means dividend on total face value of stocks.

Dividend always earned on total face value of shares as per market value.

d = g/mv*fv.

16of2/3% means we gain(g) 50/3 at 100.

1500 = 50/3/64*fv.
fv = 1500*3/50*64.
fv = 5760.

Total fv is investment to price shares.

Statements are very confusing! Basics are not clear! Help.

HOW can 16*(2/3)% can be converted to Rupee ? please explain this.