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Aptitude - Profit and Loss - Discussion

Discussion Forum : Profit and Loss - General Questions (Q.No. 10)
Profit and Loss
10.
Some articles were bought at 6 articles for Rs. 5 and sold at 5 articles for Rs. 6. Gain percent is:
30%
33 1 %
3
35%
44%
Answer: Option
Explanation:

Suppose, number of articles bought = L.C.M. of 6 and 5 = 30.

C.P. of 30 articles = Rs. 5 x 30 = Rs. 25.
6

S.P. of 30 articles = Rs. 6 x 30 = Rs. 36.
5

Gain % = 11 x 100 % = 44%.
25

Discussion:
116 comments Page 7 of 12.
Anil said:   1 decade ago
Apply this trick in these kind of question.

(x2-y2) /y2*100.

For +ve sign profit and for -ve sign loss.
Erharsha said:   7 years ago
@Sree.

S.p=4600 profit=15% c.p=?

So by applying S.P =100+gain% ÷100 * c.p We will get the answer.
Selva said:   7 years ago
No of items * 100 /amount = No of items * X / Amount.

6*100/5=5*X/6 = 144 gain percentage 144-100=44%.
Vrutti said:   1 decade ago
@SREE

Here,i use the formula C.p=((100/100+Gain%)*s.p)
Now,C.P=(100/115)*4600

Hence,C.P = 4000
Hari said:   1 decade ago
Can any one please explain me the full problem.

Because I am struck in the first step itself.
Samiksha said:   1 decade ago
We can simply apply the formula ie,

((sp-cp)*100 /cp)%

ie, ((6/5-5/6)*100 /(5/6))% = 44%
Bhanu ravali said:   1 decade ago
@Anil your said good but I can't understand what is x2&what is y2? please describe it.
Rajendra said:   7 years ago
By calculating the CP and SP for one article. Profit is 11/30 hence 44% is correct answer.
Sreekanth reddy said:   7 years ago
CP of 1 article=5/6=0.833.
SP of 1 article=6/5=1.2.
p=0.3670.
p%=(0.367/0.833)*100 = 44%.
Munjal said:   1 decade ago
Why should we take 30 articles. And how you get the 25. And why we take L. C. M 5 and 6?
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